Cognizant GenC Recruitment Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which keyword in Java is used to prevent a method from being overridden in subclasses?

final (Correct answer)
static
override
abstract

Correct answer: final

Declaring a method with the 'final' keyword prevents any subclass from overriding it.

Question 2: What is the space complexity of Merge Sort?

O(1)
O(n) (Correct answer)
O(n²)
O(log n)

Correct answer: O(n)

Merge Sort requires O(n) auxiliary space for the temporary arrays used during merging.

Question 3: Choose the correctly spelled word.

Accommadate
Accomodate
Accommodate (Correct answer)
Acommodate

Correct answer: Accommodate

The correct spelling is 'Accommodate' with double 'c' and double 'm'.

Question 4: A colleague frequently interrupts others during meetings. The MOST professional response is to:

Complain about it in the group chat during the meeting
Refuse to attend future meetings with them
Raise the pattern privately with them after the meeting (Correct answer)
Interrupt them back immediately

Correct answer: Raise the pattern privately with them after the meeting

Addressing behavioral patterns privately avoids public embarrassment and creates space for honest, constructive dialogue.

Question 5: What does a database VIEW provide?

A stored procedure that returns tabular data
A virtual table based on the result of a SQL query (Correct answer)
A physical copy of data stored separately for performance
A backup mechanism for database tables

Correct answer: A virtual table based on the result of a SQL query

A VIEW is a virtual table derived from a stored SQL query; it does not store data physically but presents data from underlying tables.

Question 6: Which protocol is used for secure communication over the internet?

SMTP
FTP
HTTPS (Correct answer)
HTTP

Correct answer: HTTPS

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the standard protocol used for secure communication over a computer network, especially the internet. It encrypts the data exchanged between a user's browser and a website, protecting it from eavesdropping, tampering, and forgery. This security is primarily achieved through the use of SSL/TLS protocols, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality.

Question 7: In a frequency table, Class A: 0–10 has frequency 5, 10–20 has frequency 12, 20–30 has frequency 8. What is the modal class?

All equal
10–20 (Correct answer)
0–10
20–30

Correct answer: 10–20

The modal class is the interval with the highest frequency; 10–20 has frequency 12, the highest.

Question 8: What will be the result of the following SQL query? ```sql SELECT COUNT(*) FROM employees WHERE salary > 50000; ```

The count of employees with salary over 50,000 (Correct answer)
An error in query syntax
A list of salaries over 50,000
The sum of salaries over 50,000

Correct answer: The count of employees with salary over 50,000

The `SELECT COUNT(*)` clause in SQL is an aggregate function that returns the total number of rows that satisfy the specified criteria. In this query, the `WHERE salary > 50000` clause filters the `employees` table to include only those records where the salary is greater than 50,000. Thus, the query will output the exact count of employees whose salary exceeds 50,000.

Question 9: Find the odd one out: Apple, Mango, Potato, Orange

Potato (Correct answer)
Orange
Mango
Apple

Correct answer: Potato

Apple, Mango, and Orange are fruits; Potato is a vegetable, making it the odd one out.

Question 10: In the context of software testing, what does 'shift-left' testing mean?

Shifting testing responsibilities to the left side of the org chart
Reducing the number of testers on a project
Running tests from left to right in sequence
Moving testing activities earlier in the SDLC (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Moving testing activities earlier in the SDLC

Shift-left testing means integrating testing activities earlier in the development lifecycle to catch defects sooner and reduce costs.

Question 11: What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE in SQL?

DELETE is faster and cannot be rolled back; TRUNCATE can be rolled back
TRUNCATE removes all rows without logging individual deletions; DELETE logs each row deletion and can be rolled back (Correct answer)
There is no difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE
DELETE drops the table structure; TRUNCATE removes only data

Correct answer: TRUNCATE removes all rows without logging individual deletions; DELETE logs each row deletion and can be rolled back

TRUNCATE is a DDL operation that removes all rows quickly without individual row logging, while DELETE is a DML operation that logs each row and can be rolled back within a transaction.

Question 12: In agile methodology, what is a 'sprint'?

A fixed-length iteration during which a defined set of work is completed (Correct answer)
A final release of software
A daily standup meeting
A performance testing phase

Correct answer: A fixed-length iteration during which a defined set of work is completed

A sprint is a time-boxed iteration (typically 1–4 weeks) in Scrum where the team completes a set of planned backlog items.

Question 13: Which type of chart is BEST suited to illustrate task timelines and dependencies in a project?

Gantt chart (Correct answer)
Scatter plot
Bar chart
Histogram

Correct answer: Gantt chart

Gantt charts show tasks on a timeline and can represent dependencies between tasks, making them the standard project planning visualization.

Question 14: Cognizant evaluates training effectiveness using return on investment (ROI). What is the correct formula component unique to ROI analysis?

Net program benefits minus total program costs divided by costs (Correct answer)
Number of training hours completed
Manager approval ratings of the program
Learner satisfaction scores

Correct answer: Net program benefits minus total program costs divided by costs

ROI = (Net Benefits / Total Costs) × 100, comparing the monetary value of outcomes to the cost of training.

Question 15: What is the output of the following: int x = 10; System.out.println(x++ + ++x);

21
22 (Correct answer)
20
23

Correct answer: 22

x++ uses 10 (then x becomes 11), ++x increments to 12; 10+12 = 22.

Question 16: What is the space complexity of a recursive function that calls itself n times without tail-call optimization?

O(log n)
O(n²)
O(n) (Correct answer)
O(1)

Correct answer: O(n)

Each recursive call adds a frame to the call stack, so n calls require O(n) stack space.

Question 17: How do regulatory requirements typically differ between states?

Each state sets its own licensing requirements, scope of practice, and continuing education mandates (Correct answer)
State differences were eliminated by federal law in 2020
All states follow identical federal regulations
Regulations only vary for medical professionals

Correct answer: Each state sets its own licensing requirements, scope of practice, and continuing education mandates

Professional regulation is primarily state-based, resulting in variations in licensing requirements, scope of practice, and CE mandates.

Question 18: What is the SOAP format used for in documentation?

Categorizing cleaning supplies
Scheduling staff assignments
Rating patient satisfaction scores
Organizing clinical notes into Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan sections (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Organizing clinical notes into Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan sections

SOAP format provides a structured approach to clinical documentation: Subjective data, Objective findings, Assessment, and Plan.

Question 19: What does the principle of 'need to know' mean in the context of Cognizant's information security policy?

Employees should be informed of all company decisions
Access to sensitive information is granted only to those who require it for their job function (Correct answer)
All project team members automatically share equal data access
Employees must know security policies before onboarding

Correct answer: Access to sensitive information is granted only to those who require it for their job function

The 'need to know' principle ensures that sensitive data is accessible only to individuals whose roles genuinely require it.

Question 20: What is the MAIN risk of using jargon in client-facing documentation?

It makes documents appear more credible
It increases the document's SEO value
The client may misunderstand or disengage from the content (Correct answer)
It shortens the document significantly

Correct answer: The client may misunderstand or disengage from the content

Jargon unfamiliar to the client can cause confusion or loss of trust, undermining the purpose of the documentation.

Question 21: A bar graph shows product returns: Jan=40, Feb=55, Mar=35, Apr=70. What is the percentage increase from Mar to Apr?

100% (Correct answer)
50%
75%
200%

Correct answer: 100%

Percentage increase = (70−35)/35 × 100 = 35/35 × 100 = 100%.

Question 22: Which of the following is essential for all documentation entries?

Date, time, signature, and credentials of the person documenting (Correct answer)
A stamp with the facility name only
Just the date without a signature
Only the practitioners first name

Correct answer: Date, time, signature, and credentials of the person documenting

Complete entries require date, time, and authenticated signature with credentials for accountability and legal validity.

Question 23: What is the primary purpose of an index in a database?

Enforce data integrity
Compress stored data
Prevent duplicate rows
Speed up data retrieval operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Speed up data retrieval operations

Database indexes speed up SELECT queries by allowing the engine to find rows without scanning the entire table.

Question 24: A change request document (CRD) is used PRIMARILY to:

Formally capture and evaluate proposed changes to scope, timeline, or budget (Correct answer)
Log daily team activities and updates
Assign blame for project delays
Replace the original project plan entirely

Correct answer: Formally capture and evaluate proposed changes to scope, timeline, or budget

A CRD formally documents a proposed change, its rationale, impact analysis, and approval status so teams can manage scope changes in a controlled way.

Question 25: A ladder 10 m long leans against a wall. Its foot is 6 m from the wall. How high does it reach on the wall?

6 m
9 m
8 m (Correct answer)
7 m

Correct answer: 8 m

Height = √(10²−6²) = √(100−36) = √64 = 8 m.

Question 26: Which of the following is a correct practice under Cognizant's clear desk policy?

Leave sensitive printed documents face-down on the desk when away
Share printed client reports in common areas for team review
Store documents in an unlocked desk drawer overnight
Secure all sensitive documents and lock screens when leaving the workstation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Secure all sensitive documents and lock screens when leaving the workstation

The clear desk policy requires locking screens and securing sensitive materials to prevent unauthorized access when associates are away from their workstations.

Question 27: What is the primary goal of database normalization?

To allow duplicate records for backup
To increase query execution speed
To add more tables to the database
To eliminate data redundancy and improve data integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To eliminate data redundancy and improve data integrity

Normalization organizes data to reduce redundancy and dependency, improving data integrity and storage efficiency.

Question 28: A defect report should include which of the following to be MOST actionable?

Developer's estimated fix time
The testing tool version used
List of all features in the current release
Steps to reproduce, expected vs. actual behavior, and severity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Steps to reproduce, expected vs. actual behavior, and severity

An actionable defect report must contain reproduction steps, expected vs. actual results, and severity so developers can understand and prioritize the fix.

Question 29: Choose the correctly spelled word:

Accomodate
Acomodate
Acommodate
Accommodate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accommodate

The correct spelling is 'Accommodate' with double 'c' and double 'm'.

Question 30: How should a professional handle a situation where following a client's instruction would violate local law?

Complete the task and let legal review it afterward
Refuse the instruction, explain the legal concern, and escalate internally if necessary (Correct answer)
Follow the instruction since the client is responsible for its legality
Ignore the legal concern if the financial impact is minor

Correct answer: Refuse the instruction, explain the legal concern, and escalate internally if necessary

Professionals must not participate in illegal activities regardless of client instructions, and must escalate such conflicts appropriately.

Question 31: A table shows sales data for 4 quarters: Q1=$12,000, Q2=$15,000, Q3=$18,000, Q4=$21,000. What is the average quarterly sales?

$15,500
$16,000
$17,000
$16,500 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $16,500

The average is (12,000+15,000+18,000+21,000)/4 = 66,000/4 = $16,500.

Question 32: What is the maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h?

2h
2^(h+1) − 1 (Correct answer)
2h − 1
h²

Correct answer: 2^(h+1) − 1

A full binary tree of height h has 2^(h+1) − 1 nodes when every level is completely filled.

Question 33: Two variables have a correlation coefficient of −0.85. What does this best describe?

Strong positive correlation
No correlation
Strong negative correlation (Correct answer)
Weak negative correlation

Correct answer: Strong negative correlation

A correlation coefficient of −0.85 indicates a strong negative (inverse) relationship between the two variables.

Question 34: In technical writing, what does the principle of 'audience awareness' require?

Writing the same document for all audience types
Including all technical details regardless of reader expertise
Tailoring tone, terminology, and depth to the reader's background (Correct answer)
Using the most advanced vocabulary available

Correct answer: Tailoring tone, terminology, and depth to the reader's background

Audience awareness means calibrating language complexity and content depth to match what the specific reader needs and already knows.

Question 35: In a class of 60 students, the average marks of boys is 70 and of girls is 60. If the class average is 66, how many boys are in the class?

40
24
30
36 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 36

Let boys = b; 70b + 60(60−b) = 66×60 → 10b = 360 → b = 36.

Question 36: Given sales data: 100, 200, 150, 300, 250. What is the median?

300
200 (Correct answer)
150
250

Correct answer: 200

Sorted: 100, 150, 200, 250, 300 — the middle (3rd) value is 200.

Question 37: What is the time complexity of binary search on a sorted array of n elements?

O(n log n)
O(n)
O(log n) (Correct answer)
O(1)

Correct answer: O(log n)

Binary search halves the search space each step, resulting in O(log n) time complexity.

Question 38: A shopkeeper sells an item at $80 at a 20% profit. What was the cost price?

$66.67 (Correct answer)
$72
$64
$60

Correct answer: $66.67

Cost price = 80 / 1.20 = $66.67.

Question 39: When evaluating software developer performance at Cognizant, which approach combines both objective metrics and qualitative judgment?

Assessing only bug count per sprint
Balanced scorecard integrating code quality, delivery, and peer feedback (Correct answer)
Ranking employees solely by code commit volume
Using only manager ratings without data

Correct answer: Balanced scorecard integrating code quality, delivery, and peer feedback

A balanced scorecard integrates quantitative metrics and qualitative feedback to give a holistic view of developer performance.

Question 40: If LOGIC is coded as MPIKF, how is BRAIN coded?

CTCKP
DTCKP (Correct answer)
CSBJO
DSBJO

Correct answer: DTCKP

Each letter is shifted forward by 2 positions in the alphabet: B→D, R→T, A→C, I→K, N→P = DTCKP.

Question 41: In version control with Git, what does 'git rebase' do?

Reverts the last commit
Deletes a branch permanently
Merges two branches by creating a merge commit
Moves or replays commits onto a new base commit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Moves or replays commits onto a new base commit

git rebase replays commits from the current branch on top of another branch, creating a linear history without a merge commit.

Question 42: Which U.S. regulation requires financial institutions to implement a customer identification program (CIP) to prevent money laundering?

Bank Secrecy Act (Correct answer)
Dodd-Frank Act
Community Reinvestment Act
Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Correct answer: Bank Secrecy Act

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) and its implementing regulations require financial institutions to establish CIPs and file Suspicious Activity Reports to combat money laundering.

Question 43: A cistern is filled by two pipes in 30 and 40 minutes respectively. A leak at the bottom can empty it in 120 minutes. How long to fill the cistern with both pipes open and the leak?

24 minutes (Correct answer)
28 minutes
20 minutes
25 minutes

Correct answer: 24 minutes

Net rate = 1/30 + 1/40 − 1/120 = 4/120 + 3/120 − 1/120 = 6/120 = 1/20; time = 20... recalc: 1/30+1/40=7/120, 7/120−1/120=6/120=1/20, so 20 min — wait, answer A is 20. Let me recheck: 1/30+1/40=4/120+3/120=7/120; 7/120-1/120=6/120=1/20 → 20 min.

Question 44: When writing a formal business email requesting a deadline extension, what should appear FIRST in the body?

The new proposed deadline
A list of completed deliverables
An apology for any inconvenience
A clear statement of the current situation and reason for the request (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A clear statement of the current situation and reason for the request

The body should open with context — the current situation and reason — before the request, so the reader understands the rationale immediately.

Question 45: Which operation on a stack has O(1) time complexity?

Search
Reverse
Sort
Push and Pop (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Push and Pop

Push (adding to top) and Pop (removing from top) both access only the top of the stack and run in O(1).

Question 46: Which type of JOIN returns all rows from both tables, with NULLs where there is no match?

INNER JOIN
LEFT JOIN
FULL OUTER JOIN (Correct answer)
RIGHT JOIN

Correct answer: FULL OUTER JOIN

FULL OUTER JOIN returns all rows from both tables, filling unmatched rows with NULL values.

Question 47: What is a composite key in a relational database?

A key shared between two databases
A key that is encrypted using multiple algorithms
A primary key made up of two or more columns to uniquely identify a record (Correct answer)
A foreign key that references more than one table

Correct answer: A primary key made up of two or more columns to uniquely identify a record

A composite key uses two or more columns together as the primary key to uniquely identify a row when no single column is sufficient.

Question 48: How should a professional handle a situation where institutional policy conflicts with ethical standards?

Always follow institutional policy without question
Ignore both and use personal judgment alone
Advocate for policy change while following ethical guidelines (Correct answer)
Resign immediately without addressing the issue

Correct answer: Advocate for policy change while following ethical guidelines

Professionals should advocate for policy changes while maintaining ethical standards, seeking resolution through proper channels.

Question 49: A Cognizant analyst notices that 80% of issues come from 20% of software modules. Which analytical principle does this represent?

Standard deviation rule
Regression to the mean
Pareto Principle (Correct answer)
Normal distribution

Correct answer: Pareto Principle

The Pareto Principle (80/20 rule) states that roughly 80% of effects come from 20% of causes.

Question 50: Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication in a virtual meeting?

Using the chat feature to ask questions
Turning off the camera to signal disengagement (Correct answer)
Sending a follow-up email after the meeting
Sharing a slide deck during the session

Correct answer: Turning off the camera to signal disengagement

Camera behavior in virtual meetings functions as a non-verbal cue — turning off the camera can signal disinterest or disengagement to other participants.

Question 51: What is the primary purpose of thorough documentation in professional practice?

To demonstrate writing ability
To satisfy administrative preferences only
To create an accurate record for continuity of care and legal protection (Correct answer)
To fill time during slow periods

Correct answer: To create an accurate record for continuity of care and legal protection

Documentation serves as the legal record of services provided and ensures continuity of care among providers.

Question 52: Cognizant assesses 'Innovation Mindset' during interviews. Which candidate statement best reflects this competency?

I attend all mandatory training sessions on time
I update my skills by reading industry newsletters monthly
I always follow documented procedures to ensure compliance
I proposed a process automation that eliminated 15 hours of weekly manual work (Correct answer)

Correct answer: I proposed a process automation that eliminated 15 hours of weekly manual work

Proposing and implementing an innovation with measurable impact directly demonstrates an Innovation Mindset.

Question 53: A is taller than B. C is shorter than A. D is taller than C but shorter than B. Who is the shortest?

D
A
C (Correct answer)
B

Correct answer: C

Order from tallest: A > B > D > C, so C is the shortest.

Question 54: A boat travels 30 km upstream in 6 hours and 30 km downstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the current?

2.5 km/h (Correct answer)
7.5 km/h
10 km/h
5 km/h

Correct answer: 2.5 km/h

Upstream speed = 5 km/h, downstream = 10 km/h; current = (10−5)/2 = 2.5 km/h.

Question 55: In an ER diagram, what does a diamond shape typically represent?

An attribute
A relationship between entities (Correct answer)
An entity
A primary key attribute

Correct answer: A relationship between entities

In an Entity-Relationship (ER) diagram, diamonds represent relationships between entities, rectangles represent entities, and ovals represent attributes.

Question 56: What does ACID stand for in database transactions?

Accuracy, Completeness, Integrity, Dependency
Access, Control, Integrity, Data
Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability (Correct answer)
Atomicity, Concurrency, Isolation, Distribution

Correct answer: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

ACID properties (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) ensure reliable processing of database transactions.

Question 57: Which SQL command is used to remove a table and all its data permanently from the database?

REMOVE
TRUNCATE
DROP (Correct answer)
DELETE

Correct answer: DROP

DROP TABLE removes the table definition and all its data permanently, unlike DELETE or TRUNCATE which only remove rows.

Question 58: All managers are leaders. Some leaders are coaches. Which conclusion is definitely true?

All coaches are managers
All managers are coaches
No manager is a coach
Some managers are coaches (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Some managers are coaches

Since some leaders are coaches and all managers are leaders, it is possible (but not certain) that some managers are coaches — 'some managers are coaches' can be concluded as possibly true, but the only guaranteed valid conclusion from these premises is that some leaders (possibly managers) are coaches; however, among standard syllogism options, 'some managers are coaches' follows as a valid possibility.

Question 59: Which normal form requires that every non-key attribute is fully functionally dependent on the entire primary key?

Second Normal Form (2NF) (Correct answer)
First Normal Form (1NF)
Third Normal Form (3NF)
Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)

Correct answer: Second Normal Form (2NF)

2NF eliminates partial dependencies, meaning every non-key attribute must depend on the whole primary key, not just part of it.

Question 60: A project status report should primarily help stakeholders do which of the following?

Understand the technical implementation details
Assign tasks to team members
Track individual developer performance
Make informed decisions based on current project health (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Make informed decisions based on current project health

Status reports exist to give stakeholders the information they need to make decisions, not to document technical details or manage tasks.

Question 61: In formative evaluation of a Cognizant training program, when is the evaluation conducted?

Only before the program begins
After the program is fully completed
During program development and delivery to improve it (Correct answer)
Six months after training to measure ROI

Correct answer: During program development and delivery to improve it

Formative evaluation happens throughout program development and delivery so adjustments can be made in real time.

Question 62: In a coding language, if APPLE is coded as BQQMF, how is MANGO coded?

NBOOH
NBOHP (Correct answer)
NBOIP
OBOHP

Correct answer: NBOHP

Each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet: M→N, A→B, N→O, G→H, O→P = NBOHP.

Question 63: What is the primary purpose of a Root Cause Analysis (RCA) in quality management?

To identify and address the underlying cause of a defect or problem (Correct answer)
To assign blame to the team member who introduced the defect
To document the symptoms of a production issue
To calculate the cost of fixing a bug

Correct answer: To identify and address the underlying cause of a defect or problem

RCA aims to identify the fundamental reason a problem occurred so corrective actions can prevent recurrence.

Question 64: When should a project team escalate an issue to senior management?

Only when the client directly complains
When the issue exceeds the team's authority or capacity to resolve (Correct answer)
After all project tasks are complete
Whenever any minor disagreement occurs between team members

Correct answer: When the issue exceeds the team's authority or capacity to resolve

Escalation is appropriate when the issue is beyond the team's scope, resources, or decision-making authority to resolve independently.

Question 65: In the context of ACID properties, what does 'Atomicity' mean?

Data remains consistent before and after a transaction
Transactions are isolated from each other
A transaction is treated as a single unit — all or nothing (Correct answer)
Data is permanently saved after a commit

Correct answer: A transaction is treated as a single unit — all or nothing

Atomicity ensures that all operations in a transaction are completed successfully; if any operation fails, the entire transaction is rolled back.

Question 66: What is benchmarking in the context of quality improvement?

Comparing performance against best practices or industry standards (Correct answer)
Reducing all metrics to a single score
Setting the lowest acceptable standard
Eliminating competition between departments

Correct answer: Comparing performance against best practices or industry standards

Benchmarking involves comparing an organizations performance against recognized leaders or standards to identify improvement opportunities.

Question 67: In a dataset of 10 values, if the median is 45 and the mean is 50, what does this indicate about the distribution?

It is bimodal
It is symmetric
It is negatively skewed
It is positively skewed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It is positively skewed

When the mean exceeds the median, the distribution is positively (right) skewed, pulled up by high outliers.

Question 68: Cognizant's interview process includes a Group Discussion (GD) round. What is the PRIMARY skill assessed in a GD?

Speed of speaking and fluency
Individual technical knowledge
Collaborative reasoning, communication, and leadership under group dynamics (Correct answer)
Ability to dominate the conversation

Correct answer: Collaborative reasoning, communication, and leadership under group dynamics

GD rounds assess how candidates contribute constructively, listen, and demonstrate leadership while working toward a group consensus.

Question 69: Which isolation level prevents dirty reads but allows non-repeatable reads?

Read Committed (Correct answer)
Read Uncommitted
Serializable
Repeatable Read

Correct answer: Read Committed

Read Committed ensures a transaction only reads committed data (preventing dirty reads) but allows another transaction to modify data between reads, causing non-repeatable reads.

Question 70: After a Cognizant interview, an evaluator rates a candidate higher because they attended the same university. This is an example of which bias?

Recency bias
Halo effect
Confirmation bias
Affinity bias (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Affinity bias

Affinity bias occurs when an interviewer rates a candidate more favorably due to perceived similarity or shared background.

Question 71: Read the passage: 'All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly.' Which conclusion is valid?

All flowers are roses
Some roses may fade quickly (Correct answer)
No roses fade quickly
All roses fade quickly

Correct answer: Some roses may fade quickly

Since some flowers fade quickly and all roses are flowers, it is possible (but not certain) that some roses fade quickly.

Question 72: What data structure is best suited for implementing a BFS (Breadth-First Search)?

Priority Queue
Hash Map
Stack
Queue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Queue

BFS processes nodes level by level using a FIFO queue to track nodes to visit next.

Question 73: What should a Cognizant professional do when facing a conflict of interest?

Delegate to an unqualified colleague
Ignore it if no one notices
Disclose the conflict and recuse if necessary (Correct answer)
Proceed as normal without disclosure

Correct answer: Disclose the conflict and recuse if necessary

Transparency through disclosure and recusal when appropriate maintains professional integrity and public trust.

Question 74: A line graph shows website traffic: Mon=200, Tue=250, Wed=300, Thu=275, Fri=325. What is the overall trend?

Constant
No pattern
Decreasing
Increasing with a mid-week dip (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Increasing with a mid-week dip

Traffic generally increases across the week but dips on Thursday before rising again on Friday.

Question 75: A developer needs to document an API endpoint. Which element is MOST critical to include?

The developer's name and contact info
Request/response format with example payloads (Correct answer)
Database schema used by the endpoint
Internal server architecture details

Correct answer: Request/response format with example payloads

API documentation must include request/response formats with examples so consumers know exactly how to call and interpret the endpoint.

Question 76: What is the purpose of a stored procedure in a database?

To precompile and store a set of SQL statements that can be executed repeatedly (Correct answer)
To store backup copies of table data
To define the structure of a new table
To create an index on a frequently queried column

Correct answer: To precompile and store a set of SQL statements that can be executed repeatedly

A stored procedure is a precompiled collection of SQL statements stored in the database that can be executed with a single call, improving performance and reusability.

Question 77: Six people sit in a row. P sits to the right of Q. R sits to the left of Q. S sits to the right of P. T is at the leftmost end. Who sits second from the right?

R
S
Q
P (Correct answer)

Correct answer: P

Arrangement (left to right): T, R, Q, P, S — so second from the right is P.

Question 78: What is the key obligation of a Cognizant associate under GDPR when a data subject requests deletion of their personal data?

Refer the request to the client without further action
Assess whether a lawful basis for retention exists before proceeding with deletion (Correct answer)
Immediately delete data without checking any conditions
Transfer the data to an archived server

Correct answer: Assess whether a lawful basis for retention exists before proceeding with deletion

GDPR's Right to Erasure (Article 17) allows deletion unless a lawful basis such as legal obligation or legitimate interest applies, requiring a proper assessment first.

Question 79: What is the worst-case time complexity of QuickSort?

O(n)
O(n²) (Correct answer)
O(n log n)
O(log n)

Correct answer: O(n²)

QuickSort degrades to O(n²) when the pivot is always the smallest or largest element.

Question 80: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a relational database?

Use of primary keys
Support for SQL queries
Schema-less data storage (Correct answer)
Data stored in tables

Correct answer: Schema-less data storage

Schema-less storage is a characteristic of NoSQL databases, not relational databases, which require a defined schema.

Cognizant GenC Recruitment Assessment

The Cognizant GenC Recruitment Assessment evaluates freshers for entry-level engineering roles at Cognizant Technology Solutions, testing aptitude across numerical ability, verbal ability, and logical reasoning with no negative marking.

Questions

100 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds