CODESP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CODESP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary purpose of a performance appraisal in a public sector merit system? → To provide a basis for personnel decisions and employee development
2. $3,458.47 subtracted from $9,821.60 is closest to which of the following? → $6,363.07
3. To ________ trainees to participate and to help them learn more, trainers will want to take steps to create a safe learning ________. → encourage; environment
4. Use the chart below: According to the May Library Summary, what percent of the total number of items borrowed were cassettes and videos? → 28.57%
5. Recency error in performance appraisal occurs when: → A supervisor bases ratings primarily on events close to the evaluation date
6. Which document provides the official written description of the duties, responsibilities, and minimum qualifications for a job class in a public agency? → Class specification
7. What is a salary range in a compensation system? → A span between a minimum and maximum pay rate for a job class
8. Which appraisal error occurs when a supervisor's rating of an employee is influenced by comparing that employee to the previous person rated? → Contrast effect
9. Which principle is MOST important to ensure legal defensibility of a performance appraisal system? → Appraisals must be based on job-related, observable criteria
10. When a job classification specialist conducts a desk audit, what is the primary activity involved? → Interviewing the incumbent and supervisor to verify actual duties performed in a position
11. Which federal law requires that men and women performing substantially equal work in the same establishment receive equal pay? → Equal Pay Act of 1963
12. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using structured, competency-based interviews over unstructured interviews in the applicant evaluation process? → They provide a more objective and consistent basis for comparing different candidates.
13. After a structured oral examination, which statistical measure is most useful for evaluating how consistently raters scored candidates? → Inter-rater reliability coefficient
14. Which type of performance appraisal gathers feedback from supervisors, peers, subordinates, and self-assessments? → 360-degree feedback
15. Choose the sentence that represents the best English usage: → Of the two runners, Bob is the better.
16. Which type of pay structure assigns each job class to a pay grade and then applies a uniform salary range to all classes within that grade? → Grade-based or step pay structure
17. What is the main risk of allowing raters to take extensive personal notes about candidate appearance during a structured oral examination? → It can introduce bias based on non-job-related characteristics and create legal liability
18. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective performance standard? → It describes a measurable, observable level of acceptable performance
19. Select the sentence that represents the best English usage. → Between the two movies, this one is the more exciting.
20. Before administering a structured oral examination, rater training should specifically include which activity? → Reviewing scoring anchors and practicing rating sample responses
21. When conducting a reference check with a candidate's former supervisor, which of the following questions is MOST appropriate and legally defensible? → Could you describe the candidate's job duties and their performance in carrying them out?
22. When designing a performance appraisal instrument for a public agency, which step should come FIRST? → Completing a job analysis to identify critical duties and standards
23. In a forced distribution appraisal system, what is the most common criticism raised by employees and unions? → High-performing teams are penalized because a fixed percentage must be rated low
24. Use the chart below: According to the May Library Summary, what was the number of videos borrowed in May? → 200
25. According to best practices in public sector HR, how frequently should formal performance appraisals be conducted for permanent employees? → At minimum annually, with interim check-ins recommended
26. Which practice best ensures that structured oral exam questions remain legally defensible under Title VII and the Uniform Guidelines? → Documenting the link between each question and a specific KSA from a formal job analysis
27. Which rating error occurs when a supervisor allows one outstanding trait to positively influence all other ratings of an employee? → Halo effect
28. Which element is essential to include in the written instructions provided to candidates before a structured oral examination? → The format, time allotted per question, and how responses will be scored
29. Which of the following sets of numbers is listed in DESCENDING order? → 5996, 5945, 5939, 5901, 5897, 5846, 5813
30. In workforce planning, what does a 'supply analysis' examine? → Current workforce composition, skills, demographics, and projected attrition