CNRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CNRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. The nurse is preparing seizure precautions for a patient admitted with new-onset seizures. Which intervention is included in standard seizure precautions? → Keep padded side rails raised and suction at bedside
2. Which antiseizure medication requires routine monitoring of sodium levels due to its potential to cause hyponatremia? → Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
3. Levetiracetam (Keppra) is frequently used as an antiseizure medication in neuroscience units. The nurse monitors for which MOST COMMON behavioral side effect? → Irritability, agitation, and mood changes ('Keppra rage')
4. When communicating with a patient in the moderate stage of Alzheimer's disease, which nursing approach is MOST appropriate? → Use simple short sentences, maintain eye contact, and speak in a calm tone
5. In which of the following injuries is a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube most likely required? → C2
6. Before administering IV phenytoin, the nurse must flush the IV line with: → Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)
7. The nurse is monitoring a patient post-craniotomy and notes the Jackson-Pratt drain output is 300 mL of bright red blood over 1 hour. The priority action is to: → Immediately notify the neurosurgeon
8. The nurse is caring for a patient with severe TBI receiving hypertonic saline for ICP management. The MOST important parameter to monitor is: → Serum sodium and osmolality
9. Which medication regimen is standard to reduce vasospasm-related ischemia after subarachnoid hemorrhage? → Nimodipine 60 mg orally every 4 hours for 21 days
10. A patient on phenytoin therapy has a level of 8 mcg/mL. The therapeutic range for phenytoin is: → 10–20 mcg/mL
11. A patient with Parkinson's disease reports difficulty swallowing. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate? → Thicken liquids to nectar consistency and refer to speech-language pathology
12. A patient with TBI is receiving mannitol for ICP reduction. The nurse monitors serum osmolality, knowing the maximum safe osmolality is: → 320 mOsm/kg
13. Which set of signs represents the four cardinal motor features of Parkinson's disease? → Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability
14. A positive Romberg test (patient sways when eyes are closed) indicates impairment in which system? → Proprioceptive or vestibular function
15. Which imaging modality is MOST sensitive for detecting acute ischemic stroke within the first hours of onset? → Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI)
16. A nurse notes Cushing's triad in a neuroscience patient. Which set of findings is characteristic? → Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations
17. A patient exhibits decerebrate posturing. The nurse understands this involves: → Extension and internal rotation of all extremities
18. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) finding is characteristically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome? → Elevated protein with normal or near-normal cell count (albuminocytological dissociation)
19. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is defined as a focal neurological deficit that resolves within: → 24 hours with no infarction on imaging
20. Which type of brain herniation results in ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiplegia? → Uncal herniation
21. A CNRN assesses a patient for papilledema during funduscopic examination. Papilledema is caused by: → Increased intracranial pressure transmitted along the optic nerve sheath
22. A patient with SAH develops delayed cerebral ischemia. The nurse implements 'Triple-H therapy.' This refers to: → Hypertension, hypervolemia, hemodilution
23. Which positioning intervention is standard for patients at risk for increased ICP? → Head of bed elevated 30 degrees with head midline
24. A patient with a known seizure disorder reports an aura of a strange smell before their seizures. This type of aura localizes to which brain region? → Temporal lobe (uncus)
25. Which intracranial pressure (ICP) waveform component reflects ventricular compliance and is normally the smallest peak? → P3 (dicrotic wave)
26. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, which pattern of weakness is MOST characteristic? → Ascending symmetrical weakness beginning in the legs and progressing upward
27. A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a ketogenic diet. The nurse understands this diet works primarily by: → Producing ketone bodies that have antiseizure effects
28. After a patient returns from carotid endarterectomy (CEA), which neurological assessment finding requires immediate notification of the surgeon? → New facial droop or arm weakness on the operative side
29. When performing a neurological assessment, the nurse tests the patient's ability to identify objects by touch alone. This evaluates which sensory function? → Stereognosis
30. The nurse caring for a patient post-endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) monitors closely for which early sign of procedure failure? → Worsening headache, nausea, and decreased level of consciousness