Mixed Deck — All CNOR Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real CNOR practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All CNOR Topics flashcards as text
The ANA Code of Ethics Provision 3 focuses on which core responsibility of the nurse?
Answer: Promoting, advocating for, and protecting the rights and health of patients
Provision 3 establishes the nurse's duty to promote, advocate for, and protect the rights, health, and safety of patients.
A patient scheduled for elective surgery reports taking warfarin daily. What is the perioperative nurse's priority action?
Answer: Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider of the anticoagulant use
Anticoagulant use must be reported to the surgical team to allow appropriate management and reduce bleeding risk.
Capnography (end-tidal CO2) monitoring provides which of the following critical safety functions in the OR?
Answer: Confirms correct endotracheal tube placement and detects disconnection
Capnography provides real-time confirmation of endotracheal tube placement and immediately detects ventilator disconnection, esophageal intubation, or airway obstruction.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position to prevent aspiration during induction of general anesthesia in a patient with a full stomach?
Answer: Reverse Trendelenburg (head up)
Reverse Trendelenburg (head-up) positioning reduces gastric pressure against the lower esophageal sphincter, decreasing aspiration risk during rapid sequence induction.
A surgical technologist has a needlestick injury during a case. What is the first action to take?
Answer: Immediately remove glove, wash the wound with soap and water, and report to supervisor
Immediate wound washing with soap and water followed by prompt reporting initiates the exposure response protocol.
The normative requirement for sterile packing is that it
Answer: Resist tears, punctures, and abrasions
Explanation: Safety requirements for wrapping materials used during sterilization include resistance to tears, punctures, and abrasions. Other prerequisites are as follows: The ability to maintain the sterility of the contents until opening. Enough porosity to allow for steam or gas penetration and venting. Effective air and microorganism barrier. Secure enclosure of contents for moisture resistance. The absence of toxic ingredients and non-fast dyes is sufficient to maintain seal integrity. Aseptic delivery of contents to the sterile field requires correct labeling. Appropriate size for even content distribution.
Which of the following is the primary strategy for preventing an operating room fire when an electrosurgical unit (ESU) is in use?
Answer: Allowing all alcohol-based prep solutions to fully dry.
The fire triangle consists of an ignition source (ESU), a fuel source (e.g., alcohol-based prep), and an oxidizer (e.g., oxygen). Allowing flammable agents like alcohol-based skin prep to fully dry and for vapors to dissipate is a critical step to eliminate the fuel source and prevent a surgical fire. While other options are components of fire safety, pooled or vaporized alcohol prep is a common and preventable fuel source.
Which action is MOST important when a power outage occurs in the OR during an active surgical procedure?
Answer: Switch critical equipment to emergency battery backup and notify engineering
Switching life-support and critical equipment to emergency power and notifying facilities engineering ensures patient safety while restoring power.
Surgical smoke (plume) in the OR poses health risks primarily because it contains:
Answer: Viable cellular material, toxic chemicals, and viable viruses or bacteria
Surgical smoke contains mutagenic/carcinogenic chemicals, viable cellular fragments, and potentially infectious viral and bacterial particles that pose inhalation risks to the surgical team.
A perioperative nurse discovers that a sponge count is incorrect before wound closure. The surgeon wants to close anyway, stating it is 'probably a count error.' The nurse should:
Answer: Perform an X-ray and refuse to close until the discrepancy is resolved
An unresolved incorrect count mandates radiographic investigation before closure to protect the patient from a retained surgical item.
Which preoperative skin antiseptic agent is CONTRAINDICATED near the eyes and ears?
Answer: Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
Chlorhexidine gluconate is ototoxic and can cause corneal damage, making it contraindicated for skin preparation near the eyes and ears.
During a procedure, the scrub person's sterile glove is perforated by a needle. The correct response is to:
Answer: Immediately step away from the sterile field and change gloves with the circulator's assistance
A perforated glove immediately compromises the sterile barrier; the scrub must step back and change gloves with circulator assistance right away.
The surgical time-out is performed primarily to:
Answer: Verify correct patient identity, procedure, and operative site before incision
The time-out, per The Joint Commission Universal Protocol, verifies correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site/side immediately before the procedure begins.
During a surgical timeout, which team member has the authority to call a stop if a safety concern is raised?
Answer: Any member of the surgical team
Any member of the surgical team has both the authority and the responsibility to call a stop when a safety concern arises during the timeout.
Which class of SSI involves infection only of the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the incision?
Answer: Superficial incisional SSI
A superficial incisional SSI is limited to the skin and subcutaneous tissue without involvement of deeper fascial layers.
A patient undergoing preoperative assessment has a history of sleep apnea but does not use their CPAP device. The nurse's priority is to:
Answer: Document the history and inform the anesthesia team
Sleep apnea significantly affects anesthetic management and respiratory monitoring; the anesthesia provider must be informed.
Which sterilization method is most appropriate for heat-sensitive flexible endoscopes used in the OR?
Answer: Low-temperature hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (Sterrad) or ethylene oxide (EtO)
Heat-sensitive devices like flexible endoscopes require low-temperature sterilization methods such as hydrogen peroxide plasma or EtO.
A patient is undergoing a procedure on their arm using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block). Which safety measure is MOST critical for the perioperative nurse to ensure throughout the procedure?
Answer: Continuously monitoring the dual-cuff tourniquet pressure and inflation time.
The safety of a Bier block is entirely dependent on the proper function of the pneumatic tourniquet, which isolates the limb's circulation and prevents the large volume of local anesthetic from entering the systemic circulation. Systemic release can cause severe toxicity. The nurse's most critical role is to monitor the tourniquet's pressure and total inflation time to prevent this complication.
Which action by the scrub technician demonstrates correct technique when passing a scalpel?
Answer: Placing it blade-up in a neutral zone for the surgeon to retrieve
Using a neutral zone (hands-free technique) to pass sharps is the safest method, reducing sharps injury risk to both scrub person and surgeon.
The perioperative nurse's role during a 'code blue' in the OR includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Assuming the role of team leader for the resuscitation
The anesthesia provider or most senior clinician typically leads OR resuscitation; the circulating nurse's role is to support the team with supplies, documentation, and compressions as assigned.