CNOR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CNOR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A surgeon requests the Trendelenburg position for a pelvic laparoscopy. Which physiological effect should the perioperative nurse anticipate? → Cephalad shift of the diaphragm
2. A sterile field becomes compromised when a scrubbed team member's gown sleeve contacts the unsterile back table edge. What is the appropriate response? → Change the contaminated gown immediately
3. During a malignant hyperthermia (MH) crisis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment? → Dantrolene sodium
4. What does the term 'counts' refer to in perioperative nursing practice? → Accounting for all surgical items to prevent retained foreign objects
5. Which type of wound closure is used for contaminated or dirty wounds to reduce infection risk? → Delayed primary closure (tertiary intention)
6. A Penrose drain differs from a Jackson-Pratt drain because it is: → A passive open drain relying on gravity and capillary action
7. Flash sterilization (IUSS) should be used in which circumstance? → When a dropped instrument is urgently needed and no alternative exists
8. A patient scheduled for elective surgery reports taking warfarin daily. What is the perioperative nurse's priority action? → Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider of the anticoagulant use
9. A patient receiving spinal anesthesia suddenly develops hypotension, bradycardia, and nausea. The perioperative nurse should recognize these as signs of: → High spinal block affecting sympathetic fibers
10. Which action best prevents surgical site infections related to instrument handling during a procedure? → Confining instruments to the sterile field until needed
11. Which volatile anesthetic agent is associated with the highest risk of malignant hyperthermia triggering? → Desflurane
12. When should prophylactic antibiotics be administered to achieve the highest benefit in preventing SSIs? → Within 60 minutes before surgical incision
13. How long must a perioperative RN practice before being eligible to sit for the CNOR exam? → 2 years with 2,400 hours in perioperative nursing
14. A patient's family member demands to know details of the surgery performed on the patient. The nurse's BEST response is to: → Share only what the patient has authorized to be disclosed
15. Which laboratory value is MOST consistent with malignant hyperthermia? → Metabolic acidosis with hypercapnia and hyperkalemia
16. When a sterile package's chemical indicator shows no color change after sterilization, this means: → The sterilization parameters may not have been met and the package should not be used
17. In a 'can't intubate, can't oxygenate' (CICO) airway emergency, the DEFINITIVE rescue intervention is: → Cricothyrotomy
18. During a surgical timeout, which team member has the authority to call a stop if a safety concern is raised? → Any member of the surgical team
19. A nurse witnesses a colleague falsifying a count sheet to avoid delaying the surgeon. The nurse's ethical obligation is to: → Report the falsification through the proper chain of command
20. When performing surgical site skin preparation, which technique is correct for applying an antiseptic solution? → Use a circular motion from the incision site outward to the periphery
21. A nurse notices that a sterile package has a small tear in the outer wrapper but the inner wrapper appears intact. What is the correct action? → Consider the item unsterile and replace it
22. Under which circumstance is it ethically permissible for a perioperative nurse to share a patient's health information without consent? → When required by mandatory reporting laws such as gunshot wounds or communicable diseases
23. The electrosurgical unit (ESU) dispersive electrode should be placed: → On a well-vascularized muscle mass closest to but not over the operative site
24. Which action is required before any item is considered sterile and safe to use in a sterile field? → Verification of chemical indicator color change, intact packaging, and expiration date
25. When a cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, which team member is responsible for documenting the resuscitation timeline? → A designated circulating nurse
26. The scrub person notes that a sponge count is incorrect before closing a body cavity. What is the immediate first action? → Inform the surgeon immediately and search the wound
27. Which body structure is at greatest risk for injury when a patient is placed in the lithotomy position? → Femoral nerve and peroneal nerve
28. Which of the following is an early sign of air embolism during a procedure performed in the sitting (beach chair) position? → 'Mill wheel' murmur and a decrease in end-tidal CO2
29. Which organization sets the primary scope and standards of perioperative nursing practice in the United States? → AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses)
30. Which type of surgical fire requires a Class C fire extinguisher? → Electrical equipment fire