CNOR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CNOR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What does the term 'counts' refer to in perioperative nursing practice? → Accounting for all surgical items to prevent retained foreign objects
2. A Penrose drain differs from a Jackson-Pratt drain because it is: → A passive open drain relying on gravity and capillary action
3. The electrosurgical unit (ESU) dispersive electrode should be placed: → On a well-vascularized muscle mass closest to but not over the operative site
4. At the conclusion of a complex aortic valve replacement, the surgeon initiates a debriefing. What is a primary objective of this communication process? → To identify opportunities for improving teamwork and patient safety on future cases.
5. Before passing a sharp instrument on the sterile field, the scrub person should: → Use a neutral/hands-free technique or announce 'sharp' before transfer
6. The scrub person should handle tissue on the sterile field by: → Using the least traumatic technique, handling tissue as gently as possible
7. Primary intention wound healing occurs when: → Wound edges are approximated and secured with sutures, staples, or tissue adhesive
8. Which of the following actions by a non-scrubbed (circulating) team member represents a break in sterile technique? → Reaching over the sterile back table to point to an instrument.
9. A patient is positioned in lithotomy. Both legs should be raised and lowered simultaneously to prevent which complication? → Hemodynamic instability from sudden blood volume shifts
10. Which retractor type is self-retaining and does not require a team member to hold it? → Balfour retractor
11. Which type of endoscope allows visualization of joint spaces during arthroscopic procedures? → Arthroscope
12. The harmonic scalpel differs from conventional electrosurgery because it: → Uses ultrasonic vibration to cut and coagulate simultaneously with minimal thermal spread
13. Which factor in Halsted's principles of surgery directly reduces SSI risk by preserving tissue viability? → Gentle tissue handling and meticulous hemostasis
14. Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT/VAC therapy) aids wound healing primarily by: → Removing exudate, reducing edema, promoting perfusion, and stimulating granulation tissue
15. Which layer of padding is recommended FIRST when protecting bony prominences from pressure injury during surgery? → Soft absorbent material (e.g., cotton batting or foam) directly against the skin
16. Evisceration differs from dehiscence in that evisceration involves: → Protrusion of abdominal organs through the open wound
17. Which suture characteristic describes sutures that are absorbed by the body over time through hydrolysis or enzymatic degradation? → Absorbable sutures
18. Which of the following best exemplifies the perioperative nurse's role as a patient advocate? → Questioning an order for a medication when the patient's chart indicates a known allergy.
19. When placing a patient in the lateral decubitus position, which structure is at greatest risk for pressure injury if padding is not applied correctly? → Common peroneal nerve at the fibular head
20. Which monitoring parameter is MOST important to assess continuously during a procedure performed in the sitting (beach chair) position? → Cerebral perfusion pressure via mean arterial pressure at head level
21. When is the final instrument, sponge, and sharp count performed? → At the beginning of wound closure and before the patient leaves the OR
22. Which of the following biological markers should be passed through sterilizers at a minimum frequency? → Once a week and with all implants.
23. How long can sterile supplies remain open in an empty room before they need to be thrown out? → There is no specific amount of time
24. Which instrument is used to approximate wound edges during fascial closure? → Kocher or Allis clamp used to grasp fascia while placing sutures
25. The following situations have the lowest postoperative infection rates: → Not removed
26. Which suture material is classified as nonabsorbable and commonly used for vascular anastomoses? → Polypropylene (Prolene)
27. A Class II wound classification (Clean-Contaminated) applies when: → The respiratory, alimentary, or genitourinary tract is entered under controlled conditions
28. A closed suction drain (e.g., Jackson-Pratt or Blake drain) functions by: → Creating negative pressure to actively remove fluid from a surgical site
29. Which factor most significantly increases a patient's risk of surgical site infection (SSI)? → Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus with elevated blood glucose
30. The circulating nurse notes that the patient's arm is abducted greater than 90 degrees on the arm board. The primary concern is injury to which structure? → Brachial plexus from stretch or compression