CNA Basic Nursing Skills 13 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A resident with an ileostomy evacuates feces through the
- Colon
- ileum (Correct answer)
- Jejunum
- Anus
Correct answer: ileum
An ileostomy is a surgical procedure where a portion of the ileum, the final section of the small intestine, is brought through an opening in the abdominal wall to form a stoma. Feces, which are typically liquid or semi-liquid at this point, are then evacuated directly from the ileum into an external collection pouch, bypassing the large intestine, rectum, and anus.
Question 2: Drainage bags from urinary catheters should always
- have their output measured each week.
- be kept below the level of the bladder. (Correct answer)
- be fastened securely to the bed frame.
- be changed every shift.
Correct answer: be kept below the level of the bladder.
Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder is crucial to prevent the backflow of urine, which can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). Gravity assists in proper drainage when the bag is positioned lower than the bladder. Fastening it to the bed frame is acceptable, but the primary concern is its height relative to the bladder.
Question 3: Which of the following is associated with smoking?
- vitamin C deficiency.
- Pneumonia.
- heart attacks.
- all of the above. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: all of the above.
Smoking is a major risk factor for a wide range of health problems. It depletes vitamin C levels in the body, increases susceptibility to respiratory infections like pneumonia, and significantly raises the risk of cardiovascular diseases, including heart attacks. Therefore, all the listed conditions are indeed associated with smoking.
Question 4: Mrs. Sparks is an 83-year-old female patient who suffers from the late effects of a CVA. she has {L} sided hemiplegia. This is
- Paralysis on the left side of the body (Correct answer)
- L arm contracture
- Rash to the L arm
- L arm and leg itching
Correct answer: Paralysis on the left side of the body
Hemiplegia is a medical term meaning paralysis of one side of the body. The "L" in {L} sided hemiplegia specifically indicates that the paralysis affects the left side. This condition is a common neurological deficit resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), also known as a stroke.
Question 5: Which of the following is not true of blindness?
- Always identify yourself before touching a blind person.
- Ask if a blind person needs help before giving assistance.
- Diabetes is an important cause of blindness.
- Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all.
This statement is incorrect because most people who are legally blind or visually impaired still have some degree of vision, even if it's very limited. Legal blindness is defined by specific visual acuity and field of vision criteria, not by complete absence of sight. It's crucial to remember that visual impairment exists on a spectrum.
Question 6: Mrs. Shumway has an order for I&O. You have picked up her breakfast and note she drank half of a 6oz. glass of juice, 4oz. of milk, and 8oz. of coffee, you document
- 685cc
- 920cc
- 450 cc (Correct answer)
- 240cc
Correct answer: 450 cc
To calculate the total intake in cc, first convert ounces to cc (1 oz ≈ 30 cc). Half of a 6oz juice is 3oz (3 * 30 = 90cc). 4oz of milk is 4 * 30 = 120cc. 8oz of coffee is 8 * 30 = 240cc. Adding these together: 90cc + 120cc + 240cc = 450cc.
Question 7: The safest way to confirm a resident’s identity is
- Check an ID bracelet or tag attached to the resident (Correct answer)
- Look at the door number and compare to your room list
- Ask the resident’s room mate
- Call the person by name and see if they answer
Correct answer: Check an ID bracelet or tag attached to the resident
Checking an ID bracelet or tag directly attached to the resident is the most reliable and safest method for confirming identity. This prevents medication errors, incorrect procedures, or other mistakes that can occur if a resident is disoriented, has a similar name to another resident, or if room assignments are incorrect. Relying on verbal confirmation or room numbers alone is not sufficient.
Question 8: The thinning of the fatty layer under the skin could cause the resident to
- develop pressure sores (Correct answer)
- have difficulty walking
- have slowed mental responses
- lose their appetite
Correct answer: develop pressure sores
The subcutaneous fatty layer acts as a natural cushion, protecting bony prominences from pressure. When this layer thins, as often happens with aging or poor nutrition, the skin and underlying tissues become more vulnerable to sustained pressure. This increased vulnerability significantly raises the risk of developing pressure sores (decubitus ulcers) due to reduced padding and impaired circulation.
Question 9: The loss of the ability to express one’s self is
- empathy
- verbal communication
- aphasia (Correct answer)
- speech therapy
Correct answer: aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person's ability to communicate. It can impair the ability to speak, understand speech, read, or write, thereby leading to a loss of the ability to express oneself effectively. It is typically caused by damage to the brain, such as from a stroke or head injury.
Question 10: The nurse asks you to change the urine drainage bag for a patient with an indwelling catheter. If you aren't sure how to change it, what should you do?
- Tell another nurse to do it.
- Ask the nurse to show you. (Correct answer)
- Change it anyway.
- Check the policy manual.
Correct answer: Ask the nurse to show you.
When unsure about a procedure, the safest and most responsible action is to ask the supervising nurse for guidance and a demonstration. This ensures patient safety, prevents errors, and provides an opportunity for the CNA to learn the correct technique. Performing a task incorrectly or delegating it without proper knowledge is unprofessional and potentially harmful.
Question 11: Swollen ankles and legs may be signs of
- a cardiac arrest
- congestive heart failure (Correct answer)
- coronary artery obstruction
- peripheral vascular infection
Correct answer: congestive heart failure
Swollen ankles and legs, known as peripheral edema, are a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF). In CHF, the heart's pumping ability is weakened, leading to fluid retention in the body, particularly in the lower extremities due to gravity. This fluid buildup is a key indicator that the heart is not effectively circulating blood.
Question 12: Intake and Output deals with
- Liquids (Correct answer)
- Mashed or pureed foods
- Solid foods
- All of the above
Correct answer: Liquids
Intake and Output (I&O) monitoring specifically tracks all fluids consumed (intake) and all fluids excreted (output) by a patient. This includes oral liquids, IV fluids, tube feedings, and liquid medications for intake, and urine, vomit, liquid stool, and wound drainage for output. While some foods contain water, I&O primarily focuses on measurable liquid volumes.
Question 13: Which does NOT prevent or reduce odors?
- Using room deodorizers
- Placing fresh flowers in the room (Correct answer)
- Emptying bedpans promptly
- Practicing good personal hygiene
Correct answer: Placing fresh flowers in the room
While fresh flowers can add a pleasant visual element, they do not actively prevent or reduce odors; they merely mask them with their own scent. In some cases, decaying flowers or stagnant water can even contribute to odors. Effective odor control involves eliminating the source, such as promptly emptying bedpans and ensuring good personal hygiene, or using deodorizers to neutralize smells.
Question 14: Mr. Burns just smoked a cigarette. How long should you wait to take his oral temperature?
- 15-20 minutes (Correct answer)
- 5 minutes
- 10 minutes
- No wait is necessary
Correct answer: 15-20 minutes
Smoking can temporarily alter the temperature of the oral cavity, making an immediate oral temperature reading inaccurate. The heat from the cigarette smoke can artificially raise the temperature, while the act of inhaling and exhaling can also affect it. Waiting 15-20 minutes allows the oral cavity to return to its baseline temperature, ensuring a more accurate measurement.
Question 15: The back-lying position is the
- Supine position (Correct answer)
- Sims position
- Prone position
- Semi fowler position
Correct answer: Supine position
The supine position specifically refers to lying flat on the back with the face upward. This is a common position used for various medical examinations, procedures, and for rest. Other positions like prone (lying on the stomach), Sims (semi-prone on the side), and semi-Fowler's (semi-sitting) describe different body orientations.
Question 16: Who is in charge of delegating the work assignment?
- The registered nurse on duty (Correct answer)
- The head of the clinic
- The patient's family
- The head CNA
Correct answer: The registered nurse on duty
The Registered Nurse (RN) on duty is legally and professionally responsible for assessing patient needs, planning care, and delegating appropriate tasks to other members of the healthcare team, including CNAs. The RN ensures that delegated tasks are within the CNA's scope of practice and that the CNA is competent to perform them, maintaining overall accountability for patient care.
A resident with an ileostomy evacuates feces through the