CMP Speaker & Program Development 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which contract clause protects the meeting planner if a confirmed speaker cancels within 30 days of the event?
- Force majeure clause
- Attrition clause
- Cancellation/kill fee clause (Correct answer)
- Indemnification clause
Correct answer: Cancellation/kill fee clause
A cancellation or kill fee clause specifies compensation the speaker owes if they cancel, protecting the planner from last-minute dropouts.
Question 2: A speaker requests a 'tech check' 90 minutes before their session. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this request?
- To review audience demographics
- To test AV equipment and slide compatibility (Correct answer)
- To negotiate honorarium terms
- To finalize the session abstract
Correct answer: To test AV equipment and slide compatibility
A tech check ensures the speaker's presentation files, microphone, and AV setup function correctly before the session begins.
Question 3: When building a multi-day conference program, which principle helps ensure attendees remain engaged across all days?
- Scheduling all keynotes on Day 1
- Using flow theory by varying session energy levels throughout (Correct answer)
- Limiting breakout sessions to one track
- Keeping all sessions to exactly 60 minutes
Correct answer: Using flow theory by varying session energy levels throughout
Flow theory advocates alternating high-energy and reflective sessions to sustain audience engagement across multiple conference days.
Question 4: An event planner receives two speaker proposals on identical topics. What criterion should be weighted MOST heavily for a professional development conference?
- Speaker's social media follower count
- Relevance of content to stated learning objectives (Correct answer)
- Speaker's geographic proximity to the venue
- Cost of the speaker's honorarium
Correct answer: Relevance of content to stated learning objectives
Content relevance to the conference's stated learning objectives is the primary criterion because it directly measures attendee value.
Question 5: What does a speaker's 'rider' typically include?
- Session evaluation criteria set by the planner
- Speaker's technical, hospitality, and travel requirements (Correct answer)
- Attendee registration details
- Emergency evacuation procedures for the speaker
Correct answer: Speaker's technical, hospitality, and travel requirements
A rider is an addendum to the speaker contract detailing their AV needs, travel preferences, accommodation requirements, and on-site hospitality requests.
Question 6: During a post-event debrief, session evaluations show a keynote scored 4.1/5 on content but 2.8/5 on 'practical takeaways.' What should the planner address for the next event?
- Replace the speaker entirely
- Request the speaker add actionable tools or frameworks to the presentation (Correct answer)
- Reduce the session length
- Move the keynote to a smaller breakout room
Correct answer: Request the speaker add actionable tools or frameworks to the presentation
Low scores on practical takeaways indicate the speaker should incorporate actionable frameworks, case studies, or tools that attendees can apply immediately.
Question 7: Which practice BEST supports speaker diversity and inclusion goals in program development?
- Selecting only speakers from the host city
- Using a blind review process for speaker proposals (Correct answer)
- Limiting speaking slots to association members
- Prioritizing returning speakers from prior years
Correct answer: Using a blind review process for speaker proposals
A blind review process removes identifying information from proposals, reducing unconscious bias and supporting a more diverse speaker slate.
CMP Speaker & Program Development 2
Which contract clause protects the meeting planner if a confirmed speaker cancels within 30 days of the event?