CME Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CME facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the approximate depth of the hair follicle bulb on the face compared to the body? → Face follicles are shallower than body follicles
2. During galvanic electrolysis, sodium hydroxide (lye) is produced at which electrode? → Cathode (negative pole)
3. When using an epilator with a digital display, '0.3 mA' indicated on the galvanic setting means: → The DC current output is three-tenths of one milliampere
4. A colleague asks an electrologist to share a mutual client's contact information for marketing purposes. What is the correct response? → Decline, as sharing client contact information without consent violates confidentiality
5. What is the purpose of using single-use gloves during electrolysis treatments? → To avoid contaminating the client’s skin and to protect the practitioner.
6. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 presents for electrolysis on the lower legs. The primary concern is: → Impaired wound healing and increased infection risk requiring extra precaution
7. The telogen phase of the hair growth cycle is significant for electrolysis because: → Telogen hairs have shed their papilla, making effective treatment difficult
8. What is the primary advantage of the blend method over pure galvanic electrolysis? → It works faster while retaining chemical destruction
9. What does the term 'contraindication' mean in the context of an electrolysis consultation? → A factor that makes a treatment inadvisable or unsafe
10. In most US states, a Certified Medical Electrologist (CME) must renew their national certification through which organization? → Society for Clinical and Medical Hair Removal (SCMHR)
11. Under HIPAA's Minimum Necessary Standard, how should an electrologist share a client's health information with a referring physician? → Share only the information reasonably necessary to accomplish the intended purpose
12. What is the name of the region of the hair follicle between the sebaceous gland duct and the arrector pili muscle insertion point? → Isthmus
13. Which regulatory body specifically governs the licensure and scope of practice for electrologists in states that have dedicated electrology practice acts? → State boards of cosmetology or dedicated electrology boards
14. What is the primary clinical advantage of the blend method compared to using galvanic current alone? → Faster treatment with enhanced lye production
15. A client's hair releases easily during epilaton with only mild resistance after treatment. This indicates: → Correct treatment — the follicle was adequately treated
16. What is the primary role of filaggrin protein in the stratum corneum? → Aggregate keratin filaments and contribute to skin barrier function
17. How should equipment maintenance records be maintained? → In a detailed log with dates, actions taken, and technician identification
18. Which of the following BEST describes the function of Merkel cells in the skin? → Act as slow-adapting touch mechanoreceptors
19. What is the primary reason for conducting a patch test before treating a new client? → To assess the client's individual skin reaction and establish safe treatment parameters
20. What should be done immediately after a needlestick injury? → Wash the area, report the incident, and seek medical evaluation
21. Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression that may contract during electrolysis on the face? → Facial nerve (CN VII)
22. A client has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which mechanism MOST directly explains her increased facial hair? → Elevated androgens converting vellus to terminal follicles
23. A client threatens to report an electrologist for performing a procedure outside their scope of practice. Which action best protects the electrologist legally? → Document all treatment details and consult with a professional liability attorney
24. When must an electrologist renew their state license in most U.S. jurisdictions? → On a schedule set by the state licensing board, typically every 1-2 years with CE credits
25. What should a practitioner do if a patient experiences an adverse reaction during treatment? → Stop the procedure immediately and assess the patient
26. What is the purpose of documenting a client's Fitzpatrick skin type at intake? → To guide modality selection and intensity settings for safer, more effective treatment
27. Which skin phototype according to the Fitzpatrick scale is associated with the HIGHEST risk of post-treatment hyperpigmentation in electrolysis? → Types V–VI
28. The process by which a hair follicle transitions from producing terminal hair back to producing vellus hair (as in male-pattern baldness) is called: → Miniaturization
29. In thermolysis (shortwave diathermy), what mechanism destroys the hair follicle? → Heat generated by high-frequency alternating current
30. Which anatomical consideration is most important when performing procedures near joints? → Awareness of surrounding ligaments, tendons, and neurovascular structures