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Cardiac Arrhythmia Management Flashcards

7 cards from real CMC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ€” missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Cardiac Arrhythmia Management flashcards as text
  1. A patient develops sudden onset palpitations and an ECG shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia at 220 bpm with a delta wave. WPW syndrome is suspected. Which drug is contraindicated in this setting?

    Answer: IV adenosine

    Adenosine is contraindicated in pre-excited atrial fibrillation with WPW because blocking the AV node can preferentially route conduction through the accessory pathway, potentially accelerating ventricular rate and precipitating ventricular fibrillation.

  2. Which finding confirms a successful catheter ablation of an accessory pathway in a patient with WPW syndrome?

    Answer: Disappearance of the delta wave and normalization of the PR interval

    Successful ablation of the accessory pathway eliminates pre-excitation, resulting in disappearance of the delta wave and normalization of the PR interval as conduction now occurs exclusively through the AV node.

  3. A patient in the cardiac ICU develops ventricular fibrillation. After defibrillation and ROSC, which medication should be initiated to reduce recurrent VF?

    Answer: IV amiodarone infusion

    IV amiodarone is the standard pharmacologic agent used post-resuscitation to suppress recurrent ventricular fibrillation and maintain electrical stability while underlying causes are addressed.

  4. What is the significance of a prolonged QTc interval greater than 500 ms in a cardiac patient?

    Answer: It markedly increases the risk of torsades de pointes

    A QTc greater than 500 ms represents significant prolongation of ventricular repolarization, substantially increasing the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially fatal polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.

  5. A patient with sick sinus syndrome presents with symptomatic bradycardia alternating with episodes of supraventricular tachycardia. Which management approach best addresses both components of this condition?

    Answer: Permanent pacemaker implantation with rate-controlling medications for tachyarrhythmia

    Tachy-brady syndrome (sick sinus syndrome) requires a permanent pacemaker to protect against symptomatic bradycardia while allowing safe use of rate-controlling or antiarrhythmic drugs to manage the tachyarrhythmic component.

  6. Which ECG feature differentiates Mobitz type II second-degree AV block from Mobitz type I?

    Answer: Constant PR interval before a sudden dropped QRS in Mobitz II

    Mobitz type II is characterized by a constant, unchanging PR interval followed by a sudden failure of a P wave to conduct (dropped QRS), without the progressive PR lengthening seen in Wenckebach.

  7. Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs is most appropriate for long-term rate control in a patient with persistent atrial fibrillation and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction (EF 35%)?

    Answer: Beta-blockers (carvedilol or metoprolol succinate)

    Beta-blockers such as carvedilol and metoprolol succinate are the preferred agents for rate control in atrial fibrillation with reduced EF because they also improve survival in heart failure, whereas non-dihydropyridine CCBs are contraindicated and Class IC/IA agents carry increased arrhythmia risk in structural heart disease.