CLEET Use of Force & Defensive Tactics 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under Tennessee v. Garner, deadly force to prevent a fleeing suspect's escape is justified when:
- Any felony suspect attempts to flee on foot
- The officer has probable cause the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious bodily harm (Correct answer)
- The suspect has a prior criminal history
- The suspect ignores verbal commands three or more times
Correct answer: The officer has probable cause the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious bodily harm
Tennessee v. Garner limits deadly force on fleeing suspects to situations where the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious injury to the officer or others.
Question 2: Which of the following best describes 'de-escalation' in a use-of-force context?
- Withdrawing from a scene entirely
- Using tactics and communication to reduce the intensity of a conflict before force becomes necessary (Correct answer)
- Ordering additional units to the scene
- Deploying less-lethal weapons before lethal weapons
Correct answer: Using tactics and communication to reduce the intensity of a conflict before force becomes necessary
De-escalation involves verbal and tactical strategies aimed at reducing tensions and resolving situations without or with minimal force.
Question 3: An officer observes a subject actively pointing a firearm at bystanders. The officer is legally justified in using which level of force?
- Soft empty-hand control only
- Deadly force (Correct answer)
- OC spray
- Verbal commands exclusively
Correct answer: Deadly force
A subject actively pointing a firearm at bystanders presents an imminent deadly threat, justifying the use of deadly force.
Question 4: The primary purpose of a use-of-force continuum or matrix is to:
- Guarantee that every officer uses the same amount of force
- Provide a framework matching appropriate force options to levels of resistance (Correct answer)
- Replace officer judgment in the field
- Limit the number of force options available
Correct answer: Provide a framework matching appropriate force options to levels of resistance
A use-of-force continuum provides a structured framework that guides officers in selecting force proportional to the subject's resistance level.
Question 5: When an officer applies a wrist lock or arm bar, it is classified as which type of force?
- Deadly force
- Hard empty-hand control (Correct answer)
- Soft empty-hand control
- Less-lethal intermediate force
Correct answer: Hard empty-hand control
Wrist locks and arm bars are hard empty-hand techniques because they use pain or leverage to overcome resistance, risking minor injury.
Question 6: Which of the following actions best demonstrates 'tactical repositioning' during a use-of-force encounter?
- Retreating to the patrol car and waiting for backup
- Moving to a position of cover or advantage while maintaining control of the situation (Correct answer)
- Holstering the weapon and approaching unarmed
- Contacting dispatch before making any move
Correct answer: Moving to a position of cover or advantage while maintaining control of the situation
Tactical repositioning means moving to a tactically superior position — such as cover — to reduce the officer's vulnerability while managing the threat.
Question 7: Which condition must exist for an officer to legally use force in defense of a third party?
- The third party must have previously requested police assistance
- The officer must reasonably believe the third party faces imminent unlawful force (Correct answer)
- A supervisor must authorize the action over the radio
- The suspect must have a documented violent criminal history
Correct answer: The officer must reasonably believe the third party faces imminent unlawful force
Officers may use force to defend third parties when they have a reasonable belief that the third party faces an imminent unlawful threat of force.
CLEET Use of Force & Defensive Tactics 3
Under Tennessee v.
Garner, deadly force to prevent a fleeing suspect's escape is justified when: