CHMM Facility Operations with Hazmat 3 ā Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under EPA's Risk Management Program (RMP) rule (40 CFR Part 68), a Program 3 process requires which of the following elements NOT required for Program 2?
- Five-year accident history
- Emergency response program
- Process Hazard Analysis using a specific OSHA PSM methodology (Correct answer)
- Offsite consequence analysis
Correct answer: Process Hazard Analysis using a specific OSHA PSM methodology
Program 3 requires a full PHA using OSHA PSM-listed methodologies (HAZOP, fault tree, etc.), whereas Program 2 allows simpler hazard reviews.
Question 2: A facility's waste characterization shows a liquid waste with pH 2.1. Under 40 CFR 261.22, this waste is classified as hazardous due to which characteristic?
- Ignitability
- Corrosivity (Correct answer)
- Reactivity
- Toxicity
Correct answer: Corrosivity
A liquid with pH ā¤ 2 or ā„ 12.5 exhibits the RCRA corrosivity characteristic.
Question 3: When labeling an acute hazardous waste container at a large quantity generator facility, what is the maximum allowable accumulation time before the container must be moved to an approved storage area?
- 1 day (Correct answer)
- 3 days
- 10 days
- 30 days
Correct answer: 1 day
Acute hazardous wastes (P-listed) must be moved from satellite accumulation areas to the central storage area within 1 day of reaching the container limit.
Question 4: A facility manager is reviewing a chemical's SDS and notes a vapor density of 1.8 (air = 1.0). This physical property indicates that the vapor will most likely do what in the facility?
- Rise and accumulate near the ceiling
- Disperse uniformly throughout the room
- Sink and accumulate in low-lying areas and confined spaces (Correct answer)
- Dissolve rapidly in ambient humidity
Correct answer: Sink and accumulate in low-lying areas and confined spaces
Vapors with density greater than 1.0 are heavier than air and will settle in pits, trenches, and floor-level confined spaces.
Question 5: Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.147 (Lockout/Tagout), before performing maintenance on a hazardous chemical pipeline at a facility, an employee must verify zero-energy state by:
- Visually confirming that the valve handle is in the closed position
- Testing the equipment to confirm that hazardous energy has been released or blocked (Correct answer)
- Obtaining a supervisor's written authorization form
- Installing a warning sign on the equipment
Correct answer: Testing the equipment to confirm that hazardous energy has been released or blocked
Verification of zero-energy state requires actually testing the equipmentānot just observing valve positionāto confirm isolation is effective.
Question 6: A facility is required to submit a Tier II report under EPCRA Section 312. What is the annual reporting deadline for Tier II submissions?
- January 15
- March 1 (Correct answer)
- June 30
- September 1
Correct answer: March 1
Tier II emergency and hazardous chemical inventory reports are due to SERC, LEPC, and local fire departments by March 1 each year.
Question 7: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a facility's written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP) required by OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1450?
- To document procedures for disposing of laboratory chemicals under RCRA
- To establish work practices, exposure controls, and procedures for protecting laboratory workers from hazardous chemicals (Correct answer)
- To satisfy EPA reporting requirements for toxic chemical releases
- To outline the PPE selection process for emergency responders
Correct answer: To establish work practices, exposure controls, and procedures for protecting laboratory workers from hazardous chemicals
The CHP is an OSHA-required written program for laboratories specifying engineering controls, PPE, and procedures to protect workers from chemical exposures.
CHMM Facility Operations with Hazmat 3
Under EPA's Risk Management Program (RMP) rule (40 CFR Part 68), a Program 3 process requires which of the following elements NOT required for Program 2?