Mixed Deck — All CHMM Topics Flashcards

When selecting a treatment method for a hazardous waste under RCRA LDRs, EPA's preferred hierarchy of management options places what approach at the highest preference level?

Answer: Treatment to destroy or reduce toxicity and mobility of hazardous constituents

RCRA's waste management hierarchy and LDR framework prioritize treatment that destroys or reduces the toxicity, mobility, or volume of hazardous constituents over land disposal.

Which NFPA standard specifically addresses the storage of flammable and combustible liquids in buildings and other structures?

Answer: NFPA 30

NFPA 30 is the Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code, which governs their storage in buildings and tanks.

The CHMM exam is computer-based. Approximately how many questions does the exam contain?

Answer: 200

The CHMM exam consists of approximately 200 multiple-choice questions covering all hazardous materials management domains.

DOT regulations mandate the following placards for trucks with detachable trailers:

Answer: 5 placards.

Under DOT regulations for trucks with detachable trailers, placards are required on all four sides of the trailer (front, back, and both sides) and one on the front of the transport vehicle (the truck itself). This ensures that emergency responders and others can identify the hazards of the cargo from any approach. Therefore, a total of five placards are typically mandated for such configurations.

The Incident Command System (ICS) Finance/Administration Section is typically activated when:

Answer: The incident spans multiple operational periods requiring cost tracking

Finance/Administration is activated when an incident requires tracking costs across multiple operational periods or has significant financial implications.

A facility generates F003 listed hazardous waste (spent non-halogenated solvents). The waste is treated to non-detect levels for all listed constituents. It must still be managed as listed hazardous waste unless:

Answer: The facility obtains a delisting from EPA or an authorized state

Listed hazardous waste retains its listed status unless EPA or an authorized state grants a delisting petition for that specific waste from that specific facility.

Which factor most significantly affects the decision to shelter-in-place versus evacuate during a toxic chemical release?

Answer: Wind speed, direction, duration of release, and building integrity

The decision between shelter-in-place and evacuation depends on meteorological conditions, expected release duration, distance, and the protective capacity of available structures.

Which section of the Hazardous Materials Table (49 CFR 172.101) provides the special provisions applicable to a material?

Answer: Column 7

Column 7 of the Hazardous Materials Table lists the special provision numbers that modify or supplement general requirements for that specific material.

What is the EPCRA Section 313 Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) reporting threshold for a listed chemical under standard manufacturing criteria?

Answer: 25,000 pounds manufactured or processed; 10,000 pounds otherwise used

Standard TRI thresholds are 25,000 lbs manufactured or processed and 10,000 lbs otherwise used per year for covered facilities.

A container used to store ignitable hazardous waste must be kept closed at all times EXCEPT when:

Answer: It is necessary to add or remove waste

Under 40 CFR 265.173, containers must remain closed except when waste is being added or removed.

What is the regulatory status of hazardous waste that has been delisted by EPA?

Answer: It is no longer subject to RCRA Subtitle C regulation for the specific waste from the specific facility

A delisted waste is no longer considered hazardous under RCRA for that specific waste stream from that specific facility, removing it from Subtitle C regulation.

Under RCRA, which of the following is NOT a required element of a container storage area inspection for hazardous waste?

Answer: Testing the chemical composition of waste in each container

RCRA requires visual inspections of containers for leaks and label integrity but does not require chemical testing of waste in each container.

Which federal regulation governs the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program for wastewater discharges?

Answer: Clean Water Act Section 402

Clean Water Act Section 402 establishes the NPDES program, requiring permits for discharges of pollutants into waters of the United States.

A facility is subject to EPCRA Section 312 Tier II reporting. By what date must the annual report be submitted?

Answer: March 1

Tier II reports covering the previous calendar year's chemical inventories must be submitted by March 1 of each year.

The Incident Command System (ICS) principle of 'unity of command' means that each responder:

Answer: Must report to exactly one supervisor

Unity of command ensures every individual has one designated supervisor, preventing confusion and conflicting instructions during incident response.

Which document is required by OSHA PSM (29 CFR 1910.119) to analyze what can go wrong and the consequences of those failures?

Answer: Process Hazard Analysis (PHA)

PSM requires a Process Hazard Analysis (PHA) to identify, evaluate, and control hazards of processes involving highly hazardous chemicals.

A brownfields site developer wants to reuse a former dry-cleaning facility for retail use. Which remediation approach most efficiently manages residual PCE contamination while allowing site redevelopment?

Answer: Risk-based closure with land use controls and long-term monitoring

Risk-based closure with institutional controls allows development to proceed while managing residual contamination through deed restrictions and monitoring, balancing protection with economic reuse.

Under DOT regulations, which class of placards is required on a transport vehicle carrying hazardous materials in storage awaiting shipment?

Answer: Placards are only required once materials are loaded onto a vehicle

DOT placarding requirements apply to vehicles during transport; once materials are unloaded into storage, transport placarding rules no longer apply.

A remediation manager needs to address a plume of dissolved chlorinated solvents in groundwater that is slowly migrating. The goal is to install a passive, long-term treatment system that cleans the water as it flows through a subsurface treatment zone without continuous energy input. Which technology best fits this description?

Answer: Permeable Reactive Barrier (PRB)

A Permeable Reactive Barrier (PRB) is a passive, in-situ treatment zone of reactive material installed across the flow path of a contaminant plume. As groundwater passes through the barrier, the contaminants are degraded or captured. This method is passive and does not require ongoing pumping. Pump and Treat, Dual-Phase Extraction, and Air Sparging are all active remediation technologies that require continuous energy input to operate pumps or blowers.

Which of these is a "Brownfield"?

Answer: Real property (with certain exclusions),the expansion, redevelopment ,or reuse of which may be complication by the presence or potential presence of a hazardous substance ,pollutant,or contaminant.

A 'Brownfield' is a term used in environmental management to describe real property where expansion, redevelopment, or reuse is complicated by the actual or perceived presence of hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants. This definition highlights the challenge of revitalizing such sites due to environmental concerns. The goal of Brownfield programs is to facilitate the cleanup and sustainable reuse of these properties.