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Derivatives and Risk Management Flashcards

6 cards from real CFA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Value at Risk (VaR) at a 95% confidence level and a 1-day horizon means:

    Answer: The portfolio will lose more than the VaR amount 5 days out of every 100

    95% VaR means there is a 5% probability of losing more than the VaR amount over the specified horizon; losses exceeding VaR are expected 5 out of every 100 days.

  2. Conditional VaR (CVaR), also called Expected Shortfall, improves on VaR because it measures:

    Answer: The expected loss given that the loss exceeds the VaR threshold

    CVaR is the average loss in the tail beyond the VaR threshold, capturing tail risk that VaR ignores by only identifying the threshold but not the severity of losses beyond it.

  3. Which of the following best describes a credit default swap (CDS)?

    Answer: A derivative where the protection buyer pays periodic premiums in exchange for a payment if a credit event occurs

    In a CDS, the protection buyer pays periodic premiums to the protection seller, who makes a payment if the reference entity experiences a credit event (e.g., default).

  4. Gamma (Γ) of an option is highest when:

    Answer: The option is near-the-money and close to expiration

    Gamma is largest for at-the-money options near expiration because delta is changing most rapidly as the option transitions between in- and out-of-the-money.

  5. Which risk management strategy is MOST appropriate when a firm wants to eliminate the risk of an adverse price move but retain the potential to benefit from a favorable move?

    Answer: Buy an option to hedge the downside while retaining upside

    Buying options provides asymmetric protection: you pay a premium to eliminate downside risk while retaining full upside participation if prices move favorably.

  6. A firm has a floating-rate loan and is concerned rates will rise. To manage this risk, the firm should:

    Answer: Both B and C are appropriate strategies

    Both paying fixed/receiving floating in a swap and buying an interest rate cap limit the firm's exposure to rising rates; either strategy is appropriate depending on cost and flexibility needs.