Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the Market Approach in valuation primarily based on?
- Internal rate of return
- Market comparables (Correct answer)
- Replacement cost
- Projected cash flows
Correct answer: Market comparables
The Market Approach compares the subject company to similar businesses that have been sold or publicly traded.
Question 2: Return on equity can be inflated by which financing choice even if operating performance is unchanged?
- Holding more cash
- Increasing financial leverage (more debt) (Correct answer)
- Reducing sales
- Issuing more equity
Correct answer: Increasing financial leverage (more debt)
Higher leverage raises the equity multiplier, boosting ROE without improving operations.
Question 3: An analyst notes the subject industry is highly sensitive to interest rates (e.g., homebuilding). This sensitivity should:
- Be reflected in scenario and risk analysis of projections (Correct answer)
- Eliminate the need for industry analysis
- Reduce the company-specific premium to zero
- Be ignored because rates are macro factors
Correct answer: Be reflected in scenario and risk analysis of projections
Interest-rate-sensitive industries warrant scenario analysis reflecting how rate changes affect projected results.
Question 4: Beta in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) measures:
- Systematic (market) risk of an investment relative to the overall market (Correct answer)
- Total risk including both systematic and unsystematic components
- The company's financial leverage ratio
- The volatility of a company's earnings over time
Correct answer: Systematic (market) risk of an investment relative to the overall market
Beta measures systematic risk — how much a security's returns move in relation to overall market movements — and cannot be diversified away.
Question 5: When selecting guideline companies, the analyst should prioritize firms that are:
- Similar in industry, size, and risk profile (Correct answer)
- Audited by the same accounting firm
- Located in the same building
- Founded in the same year
Correct answer: Similar in industry, size, and risk profile
Comparability hinges on similar industry, size, growth, and risk characteristics, not incidental factors.
Question 6: Under NACVA standards, what must an analyst do before relying on a specialist's report (e.g., a real estate appraiser)?
- Assess the specialist's qualifications and the reasonableness of their work (Correct answer)
- Ignore it to preserve independence
- Re-perform the entire specialist analysis
- Automatically accept it without review
Correct answer: Assess the specialist's qualifications and the reasonableness of their work
The analyst must evaluate the specialist's professional qualifications and the reasonableness of their conclusions before relying on them.
Question 7: In a divorce proceeding, the valuation date for a business interest is most often:
- The date the valuation report is signed
- Always the date the divorce petition is filed
- Determined by state law or the court, commonly the date of separation, filing, or trial (Correct answer)
- The last date the business filed a tax return before the divorce
Correct answer: Determined by state law or the court, commonly the date of separation, filing, or trial
Valuation dates in divorce vary by jurisdiction — some states use date of separation, others use filing date, and others use the trial date, making state law review critical.
Question 8: When local economic conditions diverge from national trends, the analyst should:
- Apply a fixed 10% adjustment
- Use only the client's projections
- Ignore local data in favor of national averages
- Weight regional data relevant to the subject company's market (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Weight regional data relevant to the subject company's market
A subject company's value reflects its actual market, so relevant regional economic data should be weighted.
Question 9: The Quantitative Marketability Discount Model (QMDM) developed by Mercer primarily considers which variables?
- Industry multiples, leverage ratios, and working capital requirements
- EBITDA margins, capital expenditure needs, and terminal growth rates
- Restricted stock discounts, pre-IPO discounts, and option-pricing inputs
- Expected holding period, interim distributions, required rate of return, and expected growth (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Expected holding period, interim distributions, required rate of return, and expected growth
The QMDM is a discounted cash flow model at the shareholder level that incorporates holding period, expected dividends or distributions, required return, and expected value growth.
Question 10: A higher degree of financial leverage in a company's capital structure generally results in:
- A reduction in WACC because of the increased tax shield
- A lower cost of equity because debt is cheaper than equity
- A higher cost of equity due to increased financial risk to shareholders (Correct answer)
- No change to cost of equity if operating risk remains constant
Correct answer: A higher cost of equity due to increased financial risk to shareholders
Greater leverage increases the volatility of equity returns and financial risk borne by shareholders, requiring a higher equity return as compensation.
Question 11: A CVA must disclose in the report any restrictions on the scope of work that affect the conclusion. This requirement promotes:
- Transparency so users understand limitations on the analysis (Correct answer)
- Faster turnaround of the report
- Higher fees for the analyst
- Avoidance of peer review
Correct answer: Transparency so users understand limitations on the analysis
Disclosing scope limitations ensures report users understand how restrictions may affect the conclusion.
Question 12: A CVA testifying as an expert witness must comply with Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 26(a)(2)(B), which requires disclosure of:
- A written report containing all opinions, the basis and reasons, data relied upon, and compensation arrangements (Correct answer)
- Only opinions that have not previously been disclosed in deposition
- Only a summary of the expert's conclusions in a one-page letter
- Opinions provided within 30 days of the trial date
Correct answer: A written report containing all opinions, the basis and reasons, data relied upon, and compensation arrangements
FRCP 26(a)(2)(B) mandates a comprehensive expert report disclosing all opinions, supporting rationale, data, prior testimony, and compensation to enable opposing parties to prepare.
Question 13: Which of the following factors would most likely INCREASE the appropriate DLOM for a given interest?
- The shareholder agreement prohibits the transfer of shares for 10 years (Correct answer)
- The company has an active buy-sell agreement with mandatory redemption rights
- The company has filed an S-1 registration statement indicating an imminent IPO
- The subject company has a strong history of paying dividends
Correct answer: The shareholder agreement prohibits the transfer of shares for 10 years
A long lock-up or transfer restriction significantly reduces the ability to sell the interest, increasing the appropriate DLOM.
Question 14: Which method under the Asset-Based Approach adjusts individual assets and liabilities to fair market value?
- Adjusted net asset method (Correct answer)
- Capitalized earnings method
- Book value method
- Excess earnings method
Correct answer: Adjusted net asset method
The Adjusted Net Asset Method revalues each asset and liability to its current market value to determine equity value.
Question 15: When a subject company has no publicly traded stock, an analyst estimates beta by:
- Using unlevered betas of comparable publicly traded companies, then re-levering for the subject's capital structure (Correct answer)
- Applying the historical earnings growth rate of the subject company
- Using the industry average price-to-earnings ratio as a proxy
- Assuming beta equals 1.0 for all private companies
Correct answer: Using unlevered betas of comparable publicly traded companies, then re-levering for the subject's capital structure
Private companies lack market price data, so analysts use guideline public company betas, strip leverage, and re-apply the subject's own capital structure.
Question 16: How does an inverted yield curve typically signal relevance to a valuation analyst?
- It guarantees imminent inflation
- It eliminates the equity risk premium
- It can foreshadow recession, warranting more conservative projections (Correct answer)
- It only affects bond, not equity, valuations
Correct answer: It can foreshadow recession, warranting more conservative projections
An inverted yield curve has historically preceded recessions, suggesting more conservative forecasting.
Question 17: Intrinsic (fundamental) value is best described as the value an analyst concludes based on:
- Analysis of the company's true underlying characteristics (Correct answer)
- The seller's asking price
- The last transaction price
- Replacement cost of fixed assets only
Correct answer: Analysis of the company's true underlying characteristics
Intrinsic value reflects an analyst's judgment of true worth from fundamentals, independent of current market price.
Question 18: When normalizing earnings for a closely held company, which adjustment removes the effect of an owner paying themselves above-market compensation?
- Deferring revenue to the next period
- Removing depreciation expense
- Adding back excess officer compensation to pre-tax earnings (Correct answer)
- Capitalizing all officer salaries
Correct answer: Adding back excess officer compensation to pre-tax earnings
Excess compensation above a market rate is added back to normalize earnings to what an arm's-length employer would pay.
Question 19: Net cash flow to equity is generally calculated as net income plus depreciation, minus:
- Only interest expense
- The discount rate
- Capital expenditures and increases in working capital, plus net borrowing (Correct answer)
- All operating expenses
Correct answer: Capital expenditures and increases in working capital, plus net borrowing
Net cash flow to equity adjusts net income for non-cash items, reinvestment needs, and changes in debt.
Question 20: A key-person discount is most appropriately applied when:
- A specific individual's skills, relationships, or reputation are critical to the company's success (Correct answer)
- The company operates in a highly regulated industry
- The company's revenues are highly diversified across many customers
- The minority discount has already been applied to the interest
Correct answer: A specific individual's skills, relationships, or reputation are critical to the company's success
A key-person discount recognizes the increased risk and potential value loss if a critical individual—upon whom the business heavily depends—were to leave.
Question 21: An industry with high fixed costs and significant excess capacity is most likely to exhibit which competitive characteristic?
- High and stable profit margins
- Low sensitivity to demand changes
- Intense price competition and rivalry (Correct answer)
- Strong barriers to entry protecting incumbents
Correct answer: Intense price competition and rivalry
High fixed costs plus excess capacity drive firms to cut prices to fill capacity, intensifying rivalry.
Question 22: In normalizing earnings, gains from the sale of a fixed asset should be treated how?
- Capitalized as goodwill
- Added to recurring revenue
- Removed as a non-operating, non-recurring gain (Correct answer)
- Treated as cost of goods sold
Correct answer: Removed as a non-operating, non-recurring gain
Asset-sale gains are non-recurring and non-operating, so they are removed from normalized earnings.
Question 23: The Gordon Growth Model is used in the income approach primarily to:
- Allocate purchase price among assets
- Estimate working capital needs
- Determine the company's beta
- Calculate the terminal value of perpetual cash flows (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Calculate the terminal value of perpetual cash flows
The Gordon Growth Model capitalizes a perpetual stream of cash flows growing at a constant rate to compute terminal value.
Question 24: In a common-size income statement, each line item is expressed as a percentage of which figure?
- Net income
- Net sales (revenue) (Correct answer)
- Total assets
- Total equity
Correct answer: Net sales (revenue)
Common-size income statements express every line as a percent of net sales for comparability.
Question 25: In reconciling multiple value indications, the analyst's final step is to:
- Report a range with no conclusion
- Select only the highest indication
- Always average all indications equally
- Apply professional judgment to weight and conclude a single value (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Apply professional judgment to weight and conclude a single value
Reconciliation uses informed judgment about reliability to weight indications into a supported conclusion.
Question 26: Which valuation approach is most suitable for asset-heavy companies like manufacturers?
- Market Approach
- Dividend Discount Model
- Income Approach
- Asset-Based Approach (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Asset-Based Approach
The Asset-Based Approach is often used for companies with significant tangible assets, such as manufacturers and real estate firms.
Question 27: The 'terminal value' in a multi-period discounted cash flow model is most sensitive to changes in:
- The long-term growth rate assumption (Correct answer)
- The revenue growth rate in year one
- The depreciation method used
- The working capital change in year three
Correct answer: The long-term growth rate assumption
Because the terminal value represents the present value of all cash flows beyond the forecast period, small changes in the perpetual growth rate have a disproportionately large impact.
Question 28: An increase in the subject company's long-term sustainable growth rate (g) in the Gordon Growth Model will:
- Decrease the capitalization rate and increase value (Correct answer)
- Increase the capitalization rate and decrease value
- Have no effect on the capitalization rate
- Increase both the capitalization rate and value
Correct answer: Decrease the capitalization rate and increase value
Since the cap rate equals (discount rate − growth rate), a higher growth rate reduces the cap rate, which increases the capitalized value of the cash flow.
Question 29: Which item on the statement of cash flows would an analyst scrutinize to detect aggressive revenue recognition?
- Growing gap between net income and operating cash flow (Correct answer)
- Increase in long-term debt
- Dividends paid
- Stock buybacks
Correct answer: Growing gap between net income and operating cash flow
When net income rises faster than operating cash flow, it can signal aggressive or non-cash revenue recognition.
Question 30: Under NACVA standards, what must a valuation report include regarding the analyst's assumptions?
- Only the final number
- A guarantee of future performance
- The client's marketing materials
- A statement of the assumptions and limiting conditions relied upon (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A statement of the assumptions and limiting conditions relied upon
Reports must disclose the assumptions and limiting conditions underlying the conclusion.
Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA)
The CVA is a professional certification awarded by NACVA that validates mastery of business valuation theory and practice, including valuation approaches, cost of capital, financial analysis, and professional standards. It requires passing a 400-question proctored exam and a take-home case study.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds