Certified Surgical Technologist Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Certified Surgical Technologist facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What sort of physical characteristics should a polycythemia patient with surgery present have? → A ruddy-blue appearance in the face, hands and feet
2. Which of the following is utilized by the surgeon during a TURP to periodically remove prostatic tissue fragments? → ellik evacuator
3. What is the medical term for the situation where a bowel loop herniates into Douglas's cul-de-sac? → enterocele
4. What three elements does the surgical 'time-out' verify before incision? → Patient identity, correct site, and correct procedure
5. When setting up or operating a laser unit for surgery, which of the following steps does the nurse need to take into account? → Move laser equipment with caution to prevent hitting things or injuring internal parts.
6. Which dilator from the list below is used in the common duct? → bakes
7. The term used to describe anesthesia that combines an inhalation drug, a narcotic, a hypnotic-sedative, and a muscle relaxant is: → Balanced anesthesia
8. Surgical site marking should be performed by: → The operating surgeon before the procedure
9. What type of surgery is used to treat a condition where the urethral meatus is located on the upper surface of the penis? → epispadias repair
10. When the surgery is finished, the patient is extubated. The mouth and tube have been suctioned, and the cuff deflated. What comes next in this procedure? → Insert a suction catheter into the tube and apply suction while pulling the tube out
11. The semi-Fowler's position elevates the head of the bed to approximately: → 15–30 degrees
12. Retention (tension) sutures are used primarily to: → Provide additional support to a wound at high risk for dehiscence
13. Which of the following is a normal adult white blood cell count? → 5000 to 9000
14. Which item is necessary to set up a D&C? → Stirrups
15. What is the name of the interaction between two organisms that coexist in the same space but where one benefits while the other is unaffected? → Commensalism
16. Which position places the patient face-down on the operating table to allow access to the posterior body? → Prone
17. What bodily part undergoes preparation for an ORIF of the humerus? → Arm, fingers to shoulder
18. The lithotomy position is most commonly used for which category of surgical procedures? → Gynecological and perineal procedures
19. Which of the following glands may have irritation if the mumps is present? → Parotid
20. Which cranial nerve is solely responsible for the sense of smell and is designated as CN I? → Olfactory Nerve (CN I)
21. What kind of operation would require tooth removal? → extractions
22. What type of wound dressing is most appropriate for a clean, sutured surgical wound on postoperative day 1? → Dry sterile dressing
23. After the patient has been moved to the surgical unit, which of the following procedures can the nurse carry out to lower the risk of infection? → As soon as you can, take out the catheter that is inside you.
24. A patient is given atropine sulfate preoperatively. What is the primary purpose of this medication in this context? → To reduce oral and respiratory secretions
25. What pathology in neurosurgery would a myelogram identify? → spinal stenosis
26. In OR fire prevention, the 'fire triangle' consists of an ignition source, an oxidizer, and: → Fuel
27. Which of the following is an intervention the nurse can use with a patient who has memory issues during the preoperative period's teaching phase? → Reduce outside distractions by closing the door and turning off the television
28. What bodily part undergoes preparation for an ORIF of the humerus? → Arm, fingers to shoulder
29. X-ray detectable sponges are used in surgery primarily to: → Enable radiographic detection if inadvertently retained
30. What is the first part of the small intestine? → duodenum