CRNFA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRNFA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When the CRNFA performs the preoperative patient assessment, which finding is MOST relevant to positioning safety? → Patient's weight, height, BMI, and presence of joint limitations or implants
2. Which electrosurgical mode uses a continuous waveform to achieve tissue cutting with minimal hemostasis? → Cut mode
3. Which absorbable hemostatic agent is derived from oxidized regenerated cellulose and works by absorbing blood to form a gel clot? → Surgicel (oxidized regenerated cellulose)
4. Which of the following acts as warfarin's (Coumadin) counterbalance? → Vitamin K
5. What does the Chvostek symbol mean? → Clinical signs of hypocalcemia
6. A patient with a known latex allergy should be scheduled as which type of surgical case? → First case of the morning before latex particulates accumulate in the air
7. Which documentation is the CRNFA responsible for ensuring is complete before the surgical incision is made? → Signed and witnessed surgical informed consent on the chart
8. A Bookwalter retractor system is best classified as which type of retractor? → Self-retaining retractor
9. The CRNFA selects a TA (thoracoabdominal) stapler. Which statement BEST describes its function? → It places one or two rows of staples without dividing the tissue
10. In which anatomical space does a retroperitoneal hematoma develop after injury to the aorta or inferior vena cava? → Retroperitoneal space posterior to parietal peritoneum
11. Which anesthetic technique provides excellent analgesia for total knee arthroplasty while allowing early ambulation and reducing opioid requirements? → Femoral nerve block or adductor canal block (regional anesthesia)
12. Which intraoperative physiologic parameter, if consistently below 95%, requires immediate intervention by the surgical team? → SpO2 (pulse oximetry oxygen saturation)
13. A retention (stay) suture is used in abdominal closure primarily for which purpose? → To add supplemental strength in high-risk patients prone to dehiscence
14. A patient reports a prior reaction to a 'caine' medication at the dentist. The CRNFA should prioritize communicating which concern to the anesthesia team? → Possible allergy to amide or ester local anesthetics
15. Electrosurgical unit (ESU) current density is highest at which point in the circuit? → The active electrode tip
16. During a laparoscopic procedure, the CRNFA notices the laparoscope image is foggy. The MOST appropriate initial action is to: → Clean the laparoscope lens with a warm, moist sponge or anti-fog solution
17. A Weitlaner retractor is best described as: → A self-retaining retractor with sharp or blunt rake-like prongs
18. A ligating clip should be placed at what minimum distance from the planned transection point to ensure secure hemostasis? → 2–3 mm
19. Which patient factor is the single greatest systemic risk factor for surgical site infection? → Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (HbA1c > 8%)
20. Which of the following does the hospital or medical staff have the least influence over? → Patient's health condition
21. Which suture material is most appropriate for a contaminated abdominal wound requiring fascial closure? → Polydioxanone (PDS) — monofilament slowly absorbable
22. Which suture technique is most appropriate for ligating the pedicle of the appendix at its base? → Simple ligation with a free tie
23. When handling instruments that have been exposed to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) prions, standard sterilization with steam autoclave is: → Insufficient; prions require specialized decontamination protocols
24. Which of the following would be ranked as the post-anesthesia care's top priority? → Pain control
25. When applying electrosurgical coagulation to a bleeding vessel, the CRNFA should use which technique for optimal hemostasis? → Grasp the vessel with forceps and touch the active electrode to the forceps briefly
26. Which wound closure device provides the fastest skin closure and lowest rate of tissue strangulation in linear wounds? → Skin staples
27. When reviewing the preoperative checklist, which item related to NPO status is most critical for patient safety? → Patient had a full meal 2 hours before surgery
28. Which vessel-sealing device uses bipolar energy combined with pressure to create a permanent seal on vessels up to 7 mm in diameter? → LigaSure
29. What is the primary risk of placing an ESU dispersive pad over a bony prominence or scar tissue? → Increased impedance causing inadequate current return and burns under the pad
30. In a continuous suture, which stitches are tied? → The first and last stitch