CRNFA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRNFA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When the CRNFA performs the preoperative patient assessment, which finding is MOST relevant to positioning safety? → Patient's weight, height, BMI, and presence of joint limitations or implants
2. Which electrosurgical mode uses a continuous waveform to achieve tissue cutting with minimal hemostasis? → Cut mode
3. Which absorbable hemostatic agent is derived from oxidized regenerated cellulose and works by absorbing blood to form a gel clot? → Surgicel (oxidized regenerated cellulose)
4. Which of the following acts as warfarin's (Coumadin) counterbalance? → Vitamin K
5. What does the Chvostek symbol mean? → Clinical signs of hypocalcemia
6. A patient with a known latex allergy should be scheduled as which type of surgical case? → First case of the morning before latex particulates accumulate in the air
7. Which documentation is the CRNFA responsible for ensuring is complete before the surgical incision is made? → Signed and witnessed surgical informed consent on the chart
8. A Bookwalter retractor system is best classified as which type of retractor? → Self-retaining retractor
9. In which anatomical space does a retroperitoneal hematoma develop after injury to the aorta or inferior vena cava? → Retroperitoneal space posterior to parietal peritoneum
10. Which anesthetic technique provides excellent analgesia for total knee arthroplasty while allowing early ambulation and reducing opioid requirements? → Femoral nerve block or adductor canal block (regional anesthesia)
11. Which intraoperative physiologic parameter, if consistently below 95%, requires immediate intervention by the surgical team? → SpO2 (pulse oximetry oxygen saturation)
12. A retention (stay) suture is used in abdominal closure primarily for which purpose? → To add supplemental strength in high-risk patients prone to dehiscence
13. A patient reports a prior reaction to a 'caine' medication at the dentist. The CRNFA should prioritize communicating which concern to the anesthesia team? → Possible allergy to amide or ester local anesthetics
14. Electrosurgical unit (ESU) current density is highest at which point in the circuit? → The active electrode tip
15. Which suture material is most appropriate for closing a contaminated abdominal wound where infection risk is high? → Nylon monofilament (non-absorbable)
16. A Weitlaner retractor is best described as: → A self-retaining retractor with sharp or blunt rake-like prongs
17. A ligating clip should be placed at what minimum distance from the planned transection point to ensure secure hemostasis? → 2–3 mm
18. Which patient factor is the single greatest systemic risk factor for surgical site infection? → Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus (HbA1c > 8%)
19. Which of the following does the hospital or medical staff have the least influence over? → Patient's health condition
20. Which suture material is most appropriate for a contaminated abdominal wound requiring fascial closure? → Polydioxanone (PDS) — monofilament slowly absorbable
21. Which suture technique is most appropriate for ligating the pedicle of the appendix at its base? → Simple ligation with a free tie
22. When handling instruments that have been exposed to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) prions, standard sterilization with steam autoclave is: → Insufficient; prions require specialized decontamination protocols
23. Which of the following would be ranked as the post-anesthesia care's top priority? → Pain control
24. When applying electrosurgical coagulation to a bleeding vessel, the CRNFA should use which technique for optimal hemostasis? → Grasp the vessel with forceps and touch the active electrode to the forceps briefly
25. Which wound closure device provides the fastest skin closure and lowest rate of tissue strangulation in linear wounds? → Skin staples
26. During fascial closure of a midline laparotomy, the CRNFA uses a running Smead-Jones suture technique. What is the primary advantage of this technique? → It distributes tension across a wide fascial bite to reduce dehiscence risk
27. When reviewing the preoperative checklist, which item related to NPO status is most critical for patient safety? → Patient had a full meal 2 hours before surgery
28. Which vessel-sealing device uses bipolar energy combined with pressure to create a permanent seal on vessels up to 7 mm in diameter? → LigaSure
29. What is the primary risk of placing an ESU dispersive pad over a bony prominence or scar tissue? → Increased impedance causing inadequate current return and burns under the pad
30. In a continuous suture, which stitches are tied? → The first and last stitch