Certified Phlebotomy Technician Exam Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Certified Phlebotomy Technician Exam facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded during a venipuncture. What is the FIRST action the phlebotomist should take? → Remove the needle and have the patient lie down
2. When collecting a blood culture, why must the venipuncture site be cleaned with both chlorhexidine/alcohol and allowed to dry? → To eliminate skin flora that could contaminate the culture
3. A specimen is hemolyzed. Which test result is MOST likely to be falsely elevated? → Potassium
4. What is the primary purpose of inverting a collection tube after drawing blood? → To mix the blood with the tube additive thoroughly
5. A newborn heelstick should be performed at which depth to avoid bone puncture? → No more than 2.0 mm
6. What does the term 'hemolysis' mean in the context of a blood specimen? → Rupture of red blood cells releasing hemoglobin
7. When collecting a blood culture specimen, how should the venipuncture site be cleaned? → Chlorhexidine or iodine scrub followed by alcohol
8. Specimens labeled with a 'STAT' priority should be delivered to the laboratory within: → 30 minutes
9. How often must phlebotomists receive bloodborne pathogen training per OSHA requirements? → Annually
10. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation? → Left ventricle
11. Which three arm veins are most frequently used in phlebotomy? → Cephalic, median cubital and basilic veins
12. The system that has cilia, which are hair-like structures that serve as microscopic filters and whose main purpose is air supply: → Respiratory system
13. What color tube top indicates a serum separator tube (SST) with a clot activator? → Gold or red-gray
14. A patient has had a mastectomy on the right side. Which arm should be used for venipuncture? → Left arm, to avoid the lymphedema risk on the affected side
15. A patient's requisition indicates 'STAT' status. How does this affect patient identification? → Standard two-identifier verification is still required regardless of urgency
16. What is the primary purpose of the evacuated tube system (ETS) in phlebotomy? → To create a vacuum that draws blood directly into the tube
17. A phlebotomist cannot locate a vein after two unsuccessful attempts. What is the appropriate next step? → Ask another qualified phlebotomist or supervisor to attempt the draw
18. Which body position is preferred for most outpatient venipuncture procedures? → Seated in a phlebotomy chair with arm supported
19. Royal blue-top tubes are used for which specialized testing category? → Trace element and toxicology testing
20. Which of the following actions is most likely to cause a collapsed vein during venipuncture? → Applying excessive vacuum by pulling the plunger too fast in a syringe draw
21. Which specimen requires protection from light during transport? → Bilirubin specimen
22. What is the purpose of inverting collection tubes after blood collection? → To mix blood with the tube additive
23. It is known as _________ to utilize a chemical process to destroy all microbiological life, including extremely resistant bacterial endospores. → Sterilization
24. When labeling a blood specimen at bedside, when should labels be applied? → Immediately after collection while still at the patient's side
25. What is the primary reason a tourniquet should not be left on a patient's arm for more than one minute? → It may cause hemoconcentration and inaccurate results
26. What is the MINIMUM number of patient identifiers required before performing a blood draw, per The Joint Commission standards? → Two (e.g., name and date of birth)
27. A gray-top tube contains sodium fluoride. What test is it primarily used for? → Glucose and lactate testing
28. A phlebotomist recaps a needle using one hand to avoid needlestick injury. This technique is permitted under which circumstances? → Only when a safety device is unavailable and one-hand scoop method is used
29. Which cardiac valves prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during ventricular contraction? → Atrioventricular (AV) valves
30. What does the term 'basal state' mean in the context of patient preparation? → The patient is in a resting, fasting state, typically early morning