CDM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which competency assessment method BEST evaluates a dietary employee's ability to take accurate food temperatures? → Direct observation of the employee performing the skill
2. Which factor has the GREATEST impact on batch cooking efficiency? → Accurate forecasting of meal counts
3. Which dairy food is usually best tolerated by a resident with lactose intolerance? → Aged Swiss cheese
4. Which of the following is a primary strategy for effectively controlling labor costs in a foodservice department? → Improving efficiency through better workflow and staff training.
5. The CDM should anticipate that the greatest cost budget item when creating the budget for nutrition services will be: → salaries and benefits
6. Which menu planning approach is BEST for accommodating patients with food allergies? → Detailed ingredient identification with clear allergen labeling and alternative options
7. Which of the following is considered a physical hazard in a foodservice operation? → A metal fragment from a can opener in chili
8. Which flooring material is most appropriate for a commercial kitchen environment? → Non-slip quarry tile or epoxy coating
9. Cross-contamination between raw chicken and ready-to-eat salad can BEST be prevented by which practice? → Using separate cutting boards, utensils, and preparation areas
10. Which of the following is the best example of a process indicator in dietary quality monitoring? → Percentage of meals served at the correct temperature
11. What is the primary purpose of a nutrition screening upon hospital admission? → To identify patients at nutritional risk who need further assessment
12. Which of the following is the most critical first step when planning a menu for a specific population, such as older adults in an assisted living facility? → Identifying the nutritional needs, preferences, and cultural practices of the residents.
13. Which quality improvement tool ranks causes of a problem by frequency to identify the most significant contributors? → Pareto chart
14. According to the FDA Food Code, when must food handlers wear single-use gloves? → When handling ready-to-eat foods with bare hands
15. An effective corrective action plan developed in response to a dietary quality problem should include: → Specific actions, assigned responsible persons, timelines, and follow-up measurements
16. A menu item has a raw food cost of $1.20 per portion, and the target food cost percentage is 30%. What should the selling price be? → $4.00
17. Which practice helps prevent dumping syndrome after gastric surgery? → Drink fluids between meals rather than with meals
18. A new allergen policy takes effect next week. What is the best way to ensure all three shifts are informed? → Brief each shift directly, post the written policy, and have staff sign an acknowledgment
19. Which sweetener must be avoided by a person with phenylketonuria (PKU)? → Aspartame
20. Which of the following foods, after developing mold, can be cut and consumed? → Onions
21. A dietary manager identifies that 15% of meal trays are delivered late. What is the correct first step in the QI process? → Define and accurately measure the scope of the problem
22. How should a dietary manager communicate with an employee about a performance concern? → Schedule a private meeting to discuss specific behaviors with constructive feedback
23. Which tool is MOST commonly used to measure overall customer satisfaction with foodservice over time? → Periodic customer satisfaction surveys
24. Under the IDDSI framework, which level is 'Minced and Moist'? → Level 5
25. Which pest control approach does HACCP-based food safety management recommend as the primary strategy? → Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
26. A cook notices the walk-in cooler's door gasket is torn. What is the primary concern if it is not replaced promptly? → Loss of cold air, higher energy use, and unsafe food temperatures
27. Under CMS long-term care rules, what is the maximum time allowed between a substantial evening meal and breakfast when no nourishing bedtime snack is offered? → 14 hours
28. Which nutritional assessment parameter is MOST affected by acute inflammation or infection? → Serum albumin
29. What does the clinical abbreviation 'NPO' mean in a patient's dietary order? → Nothing by mouth
30. Which diet is prescribed as the primary treatment for a patient newly diagnosed with celiac disease? → Strict gluten-free diet