CEP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CEP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient presents with sudden unilateral weakness and slurred speech. Blood glucose is 45 mg/dL. Your first intervention should be: → Administer dextrose or glucagon to correct hypoglycemia
2. Which regulatory requirement is UNIVERSAL across all Certified Emergency Paramedic practice settings? → Maintaining current certification and continuing education
3. What role does calibration play in maintaining technical accuracy for Certified Emergency Paramedic professionals? → It ensures instruments produce accurate, consistent results over time
4. What does unequal chest rise indicate during ventilation? → Tube misplacement or pneumothorax
5. A neonate has a heart rate of 80 bpm after 30 seconds of effective PPV. What is the next step? → Continue PPV and reassess in 30 seconds
6. Which pharmacologic agent is used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? → Adenosine
7. Cushing's triad, indicating severely elevated intracranial pressure, includes: → Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
8. A patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage typically reports: → Sudden onset 'thunderclap' headache described as the worst of their life
9. What is the goal of administering nitroglycerin during chest pain? → To decrease preload and myocardial oxygen demand
10. What Apgar component assesses the infant's reflex irritability at 1 and 5 minutes after birth? → Grimace/reflex response
11. What is the antidote combination used for nerve agent (organophosphate) poisoning in the field? → Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
12. In CEP practice, what happens when regulations are updated? → Professionals must update knowledge and practices to meet new requirements
13. Which is the most appropriate transport decision for a trauma patient with an unstable airway? → Transport to nearest facility with airway support
14. Which medication is first-line for anaphylaxis in a pediatric patient? → Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
15. Which presentation is most consistent with epiglottitis in a child? → Drooling, tripod position, high fever
16. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) principle applies to ALL CEP certified professionals regardless of their specific role? → PPE must be properly fitted, maintained, and replaced as needed
17. When a CEP professional encounters an unexpected result during a procedure, the FIRST action should be to: → Stop, assess the situation, and determine whether to proceed or seek guidance
18. In a nerve agent (organophosphate) exposure, which finding is NOT expected? → Dry, flushed skin
19. A patient in eclampsia is seizing in the field. Which drug is the preferred treatment? → Magnesium sulfate
20. Which device is commonly used for securing an advanced airway? → Endotracheal tube
21. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) assesses which three components? → Facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormality
22. What is the recommended command structure at a mass casualty incident (MCI)? → Incident Command System (ICS)
23. When a CEP professional identifies a potential regulatory violation, the CORRECT first step is to: → Document the violation and report through proper channels
24. What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for a 2-rescuer infant CPR? → 15:2
25. What is the primary goal of advanced airway management in emergency settings? → To ensure effective oxygenation and ventilation
26. What is the correct procedure before intubation? → Pre-oxygenate the patient
27. During a hazmat incident, decontamination should occur in which zone? → WARM zone (decon corridor)
28. When is a supraglottic airway indicated? → When intubation fails or is not possible
29. What role does calibration play in maintaining technical accuracy for Certified Emergency Paramedic professionals? → It ensures instruments produce accurate, consistent results over time
30. What is the MOST important factor when selecting assessment tools for CEP certification work? → Validity, reliability, and appropriateness for the specific context