CEA Air Emission Monitoring & Control 4 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is 'fugitive emissions' in the context of air quality regulation?
- Emissions released during emergency venting of pressure relief valves only
- Air pollutants that escape from a process through means other than a stack, vent, or flue (Correct answer)
- Emissions that exceed permit limits and escape detection by CEMS
- Volatile organic compounds emitted from landfills
Correct answer: Air pollutants that escape from a process through means other than a stack, vent, or flue
Fugitive emissions are air pollutants that escape from equipment leaks, open surfaces, or unpaved roads rather than through designed emission points like stacks or vents.
Question 2: Which EPA regulation governs Leak Detection and Repair (LDAR) programs for equipment at petroleum refineries and chemical plants?
- 40 CFR Part 60 Subpart VV and OOOO
- 40 CFR Part 63 Subpart H and others under NESHAP
- 40 CFR Part 70 Title V operating permits
- Both A and B depending on whether the source is new or existing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both A and B depending on whether the source is new or existing
LDAR requirements appear under both NSPS (40 CFR Part 60) for new sources and NESHAP (40 CFR Part 63) for existing HAP-emitting sources, so both apply depending on source vintage.
Question 3: A facility uses a thermal oxidizer to control VOC emissions. What is the primary mechanism by which the device destroys VOCs?
- Adsorption onto activated carbon at high temperatures
- Combustion of VOCs at elevated temperatures in the presence of oxygen (Correct answer)
- Absorption of VOCs into a liquid scrubbing medium
- Catalytic decomposition using ultraviolet light
Correct answer: Combustion of VOCs at elevated temperatures in the presence of oxygen
Thermal oxidizers destroy VOCs by combusting them at high temperatures (typically 1,400–1,800°F) in the presence of excess oxygen, converting them to CO2 and water.
Question 4: Under the EPA's Title V Operating Permit program, what is the significance of the 'major source' threshold of 100 tons/year?
- Sources above this threshold must install Best Available Control Technology (BACT)
- Sources above this threshold must obtain a Title V permit and meet enhanced monitoring requirements (Correct answer)
- Sources above this threshold are automatically subject to federal enforcement only
- Sources below this threshold are exempt from all air quality regulations
Correct answer: Sources above this threshold must obtain a Title V permit and meet enhanced monitoring requirements
Stationary sources emitting 100 tons/year or more of any regulated pollutant (or lower thresholds in nonattainment areas) must obtain a comprehensive Title V operating permit with federally enforceable conditions.
Question 5: What is the purpose of performing a traverse-point sampling pattern (e.g., 12-point or 24-point grid) during a stack emissions test?
- To determine the moisture content of the flue gas at different elevations
- To account for non-uniform velocity and pollutant concentration profiles across the stack cross-section (Correct answer)
- To calibrate the pitot tube against a reference velocity standard
- To measure temperature gradients for heat balance calculations
Correct answer: To account for non-uniform velocity and pollutant concentration profiles across the stack cross-section
Multi-point traverse sampling accounts for variations in gas velocity and pollutant concentration across the stack cross-section, producing a representative average emission measurement.
Question 6: Which document must a facility submit to EPA when it voluntarily discovers and discloses a violation under the EPA's Audit Policy (Incentives for Self-Policing)?
- A Notice of Violation with corrective action plan within 30 days
- A written disclosure meeting specified criteria to qualify for penalty mitigation (Correct answer)
- An application for a variance from the applicable emission standard
- A Compliance Schedule Agreement approved by the state agency
Correct answer: A written disclosure meeting specified criteria to qualify for penalty mitigation
Under EPA's Audit Policy, a facility must promptly disclose the violation in writing to EPA, meeting nine specific conditions to qualify for reduced or waived gravity penalties.
Question 7: A wet electrostatic precipitator (WESP) differs from a dry ESP primarily because it:
- Uses higher voltage to charge particles
- Continuously wets the collection surfaces to wash collected particles away, preventing re-entrainment (Correct answer)
- Requires no power supply for particle charging
- Is limited to collecting only gaseous pollutants
Correct answer: Continuously wets the collection surfaces to wash collected particles away, preventing re-entrainment
WESPs irrigate collection surfaces with water, preventing the re-entrainment of collected particles that can occur in dry ESPs during rapping, making them effective for sticky or fine aerosols.
CEA Air Emission Monitoring & Control 4
What is 'fugitive emissions' in the context of air quality regulation?