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Mixed Deck — All CEA Topics Flashcards

100 cards from real CEA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. An environmental audit of a publicly traded company may trigger additional reporting obligations under:

    Answer: SEC disclosure rules if findings represent material financial risks

    The SEC requires publicly traded companies to disclose material environmental liabilities or risks that could affect financial condition.

  2. What is the regulatory significance of the 'derived-from rule' under RCRA hazardous waste regulations?

    Answer: Waste generated from treating listed hazardous waste remains listed hazardous waste

    The derived-from rule states that residuals generated from treating, storing, or disposing of listed hazardous waste retain the listed hazardous waste designation.

  3. In situ chemical reduction (ISCR) using zero-valent iron (ZVI) is most effective for treating which class of contaminants?

    Answer: Chlorinated solvents such as TCE and PCE

    ZVI dehalogenates chlorinated solvents (e.g., TCE, PCE) via reductive dechlorination, converting them to less toxic or non-toxic end products.

  4. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'additionality' in carbon offset projects?

    Answer: The emission reductions would not have occurred without the carbon finance incentive

    Additionality means the greenhouse gas reductions are beyond what would have happened under a business-as-usual scenario without carbon finance.

  5. What does 'ALARA' stand for in the context of radiation protection?

    Answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable

    ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) is the guiding principle for minimizing radiation exposure to workers and the public.

  6. What does the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) primarily regulate?

    Answer: Waste management and hazardous waste regulation

    The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) primarily regulates the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste. It also sets forth a framework for the management of non-hazardous solid waste. RCRA aims to protect human health and the environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal and to conserve energy and natural resources.

  7. Under RCRA, which characteristic makes a contaminated soil a hazardous waste subject to full subtitle C management requirements?

    Answer: Soil exhibits ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or toxicity as defined in 40 CFR Part 261

    Under RCRA, a solid waste is hazardous if it exhibits one of four characteristics—ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, or toxicity—as defined in 40 CFR Part 261 Subparts C and D.

  8. Soil vapor intrusion risk is GREATEST under which site condition?

    Answer: Shallow groundwater contaminated with chlorinated VOCs beneath a building

    Shallow groundwater contaminated with chlorinated VOCs directly beneath a building maximizes the vapor intrusion pathway to indoor air.

  9. When an auditor discovers conflicting information between what a facility manager reports verbally and what records show, best practice is to:

    Answer: Document the discrepancy and seek additional corroborating evidence

    Discrepancies between verbal statements and records must be documented and investigated thoroughly before conclusions are drawn.

  10. A facility generates polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) waste from transformer oil. Which federal regulation primarily governs PCB disposal?

    Answer: TSCA (40 CFR Part 761)

    PCB disposal is governed by TSCA regulations at 40 CFR Part 761, which set concentration thresholds and approved disposal methods independent of RCRA.

  11. Under RCRA land disposal restrictions (LDRs), which requirement applies before a hazardous waste may be land disposed?

    Answer: The waste must be treated to meet specified treatment standards

    LDRs require that hazardous wastes meet EPA-specified treatment standards (either technology-based or concentration-based) before land disposal.

  12. When communicating uncertainty in audit findings, an auditor should:

    Answer: State the basis and limitations of the evidence clearly alongside the finding

    Transparent communication of evidence limitations helps stakeholders appropriately weigh findings and make informed decisions about follow-up actions.

  13. A facility uses a thermal oxidizer to control VOC emissions. What is the primary mechanism by which the device destroys VOCs?

    Answer: Combustion of VOCs at elevated temperatures in the presence of oxygen

    Thermal oxidizers destroy VOCs by combusting them at high temperatures (typically 1,400–1,800°F) in the presence of excess oxygen, converting them to CO2 and water.

  14. During a hazardous waste audit, an inspector finds a container labeled only with the words 'old paint.' Under RCRA, this labeling is:

    Answer: A violation; containers must be labeled 'Hazardous Waste' with contents and accumulation start date

    RCRA requires hazardous waste containers to be labeled 'Hazardous Waste' and include the type of waste and the accumulation start date.

  15. The audit finding classification that poses the HIGHEST risk and requires the most urgent corrective action is typically labeled:

    Answer: Significant deficiency or major nonconformance

    Significant deficiencies or major nonconformances represent serious compliance failures or systemic breakdowns that require immediate and prioritized corrective action.

  16. Which factor affects the severity of environmental impacts?

    Answer: Scale and sensitivity of environment

    The severity of environmental impacts is significantly affected by the scale of the project or activity and the sensitivity of the receiving environment. A large-scale project will generally have a greater potential for impact than a small one, and an activity in a pristine or ecologically vulnerable area will likely have more severe consequences than in a degraded or resilient environment. These factors determine the magnitude and significance of environmental harm.

  17. An auditor reviews emergency response plans and finds the facility has not conducted an emergency response drill in over three years. Under EPCRA and RCRA combined requirements, drills are important because they:

    Answer: Verify that emergency coordinators and response procedures are functional and personnel are trained

    Emergency drills are required to ensure emergency coordinators, equipment, and procedures are tested and functional, satisfying RCRA contingency plan and EPCRA emergency planning requirements.

  18. Which federal environmental law created the Superfund program for cleaning up uncontrolled hazardous waste sites?

    Answer: CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act)

    CERCLA, enacted in 1980, established the Superfund program and the liability framework for cleanup of uncontrolled hazardous substance releases.

  19. A sediment sample is collected for metals analysis. Which preservation method is required for total metals in sediment per EPA guidance?

    Answer: Cool to 4°C with no chemical preservative

    Sediment samples for total metals analysis are preserved by cooling to 4°C without chemical acidification, unlike dissolved metals in water which require acidification.

  20. Which control technology is most effective for removing fine particulate matter (PM2.5) from industrial exhaust streams?

    Answer: Fabric filter (baghouse)

    Fabric filters (baghouses) achieve collection efficiencies exceeding 99% for fine particulate matter, outperforming mechanical separators and simple wet scrubbers for PM2.5.