Mixed Deck — All CEA Topics Flashcards

Under the Public Utility Regulatory Policies Act (PURPA), utilities are required to purchase power from qualifying facilities (QFs) at what rate?

Answer: The utility's avoided cost

PURPA requires utilities to purchase QF power at the utility's avoided cost — the cost the utility would have incurred to generate or purchase that power elsewhere.

Which type of energy audit involves a detailed on-site inspection?

Answer: Level 2 audit

A Level 2 energy audit, also known as an Energy Survey and Analysis, involves a more detailed on-site inspection and comprehensive analysis compared to a preliminary audit. It includes a thorough review of energy consumption data, facility operations, and potential energy conservation measures. This level of audit typically provides a financial analysis of recommended improvements, offering a clear path for energy efficiency investments.

IPMVP Option A (Retrofit Isolation – Key Parameter Measurement) involves what approach?

Answer: Measuring some parameters and stipulating others based on short-term or historical data

Option A measures key performance parameters (e.g., power draw) while stipulating less critical parameters (e.g., operating hours) from historical data.

What tool is commonly used to measure electrical energy consumption?

Answer: Power meter

A power meter is a specialized device used to measure the electrical power consumption of appliances, circuits, or entire facilities. It provides readings on voltage, current, power factor, and kilowatt-hours, which are essential data points for understanding and auditing electrical energy usage. Accurate measurements from a power meter are crucial for identifying energy waste and quantifying potential savings.

What does a positive Net Present Value (NPV) indicate about an energy project?

Answer: The project generates more value than its cost over the analysis period

A positive NPV means the discounted future savings exceed the initial investment, indicating the project adds financial value.

Which end-use sector typically offers the greatest potential for demand response in the U.S.?

Answer: Commercial HVAC

Commercial HVAC systems represent the largest controllable load in the U.S. commercial sector, offering significant thermal mass for demand response flexibility.

Which country is the largest producer of wind energy?

Answer: China

China has made substantial investments in renewable energy infrastructure and has the largest installed capacity for wind power globally. Its vast land area, favorable wind resources, and strong government support have enabled it to become the leading producer of wind energy worldwide.

Which factor most significantly increases the 'snap-back' load following direct load control of residential air conditioners?

Answer: Long control event duration exceeding thermal comfort limits

Extended control events allow indoor temperatures to drift beyond comfort thresholds, causing many units to simultaneously restart at full capacity when the event ends.

Which GHG Protocol scope covers emissions from purchased electricity consumed by an organization?

Answer: Scope 2

Scope 2 covers indirect emissions from the generation of purchased electricity, steam, heat, or cooling consumed by the reporting company.

A warehouse installs LED lighting and reduces its monthly energy consumption by 30%, but its 15-minute peak demand remains unchanged. Under a tariff with both energy and demand charges, what is the expected impact on the total bill?

Answer: Only the energy portion of the bill decreases; demand charges remain the same

LED retrofits reduce kWh consumption and therefore the energy charge, but if the 15-minute peak is unchanged, demand charges remain unaffected.

In EnergyPlus, what is the function of the 'Output:Meter' object?

Answer: It reports aggregated energy consumption for specified fuel types and end uses

Output:Meter objects in EnergyPlus aggregate and report energy consumption by fuel type and end-use category (e.g., cooling electricity, heating gas) at user-specified intervals.

What is the role of benchmarking in energy reporting?

Answer: Comparing performance

Benchmarking in energy reporting involves comparing a building's or facility's energy performance against similar buildings, industry standards, or its own historical data. This process helps identify areas of underperformance or excellence, setting targets for improvement and evaluating the effectiveness of energy management strategies. It provides context for energy consumption.

A boiler operates at 78% thermal efficiency. If the boiler input is 1,000 MBH, what is the useful heat output?

Answer: 780 MBH

Useful output = input × efficiency = 1,000 MBH × 0.78 = 780 MBH; the remaining 220 MBH is lost through flue gases and jacket losses.

How should CEA professionals handle confidential information related to carbon footprint & emissions tracking?

Answer: Follow established protocols for data protection, access control, and disclosure in accordance with applicable regulations

Confidential information must be handled according to established protocols, regulatory requirements, and professional ethics standards, including proper access control and disclosure procedures.

What does the term 'baseload' refer to in energy data analysis?

Answer: The minimum energy consumption that occurs regardless of weather or production

Baseload is the minimum energy consumption level that persists regardless of weather or production changes, typically representing always-on equipment like servers, refrigeration, and lighting.

Why is baseline energy consumption important?

Answer: It provides a reference for measuring improvements

Baseline energy consumption refers to the historical or current energy usage against which future energy performance and savings are measured. Establishing a clear baseline is crucial for evaluating the effectiveness of energy efficiency projects, as it allows for accurate quantification of energy reductions and financial savings achieved after implementing improvements. Without a baseline, it's impossible to objectively assess the impact of efficiency measures.

The 'free rider' problem in DSM programs refers to participants who:

Answer: Would have taken the efficient action without the utility incentive

Free riders claim program incentives for actions they would have taken anyway, reducing the net cost-effectiveness of the DSM program.

Which concept describes the minimum price at which a generator will offer power into the wholesale market, typically reflecting variable operating costs?

Answer: Marginal cost (short-run)

A generator's short-run marginal cost (primarily fuel and variable O&M) sets its offer floor, since it will not bid below the cost of actually producing each additional megawatt-hour.

Under the GHG Protocol, which approach requires a company to consolidate 100% of emissions from operations based on the percentage of economic interest it holds?

Answer: Equity share approach

The equity share approach requires a company to account for GHG emissions from operations in proportion to its equity share (ownership percentage) in those operations.

A luminaire delivers 3,500 lumens using 35 watts. What is its efficacy?

Answer: 100 lm/W

Efficacy = lumens ÷ watts = 3,500 ÷ 35 = 100 lm/W.