CDT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In the context of CDT, how does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) respond during a trauma trigger in individuals with disabilities? → It may activate fight, flight, or freeze responses
2. Which legal concept protects individuals with disabilities from abuse and neglect in care settings under U.S. law? → Adult Protective Services (APS) statutes
3. What is Psychological First Aid (PFA) primarily designed to accomplish in disability trauma crisis response? → Reduce initial distress and foster short-term and long-term adaptive functioning
4. In CDT practice, why should practitioners be aware that some disability symptoms may overlap with trauma symptoms neurobiologically? → To avoid misattributing trauma responses solely to the disability itself
5. Which ethical principle is violated when a practitioner uses trauma-related disclosures to shame or punish a client with a disability? → Nonmaleficence
6. How does adverse childhood experience (ACE) research inform CDT practice? → It demonstrates that early trauma has lasting neurobiological and health consequences
7. Which neurobiological process is targeted by EMDR therapy to help reprocess traumatic memories? → Bilateral stimulation to facilitate adaptive memory reconsolidation
8. Which U.S. law mandates that public schools provide free appropriate public education (FAPE) to students with disabilities, relevant to child trauma cases? → Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)
9. Which principle guides crisis intervention planning for individuals with disabilities who have experienced complex (repeated) trauma? → Stabilization must precede trauma processing work
10. What is a trauma-informed approach to therapy? → Recognizing trauma, understanding its impact, and offering empathetic, supportive care.
11. Which model is most commonly referenced as a structured framework for crisis intervention in trauma-informed disability practice? → Roberts' Seven-Stage Crisis Intervention Model
12. What family intervention approach helps family members of individuals with disabilities learn to recognize and respond to trauma triggers at home? → Trauma-informed family psychoeducation and skills training
13. What organizational factor most significantly increases CDT practitioners' risk for secondary traumatic stress? → High caseloads with inadequate supervision and support
14. How can clinicians tailor interventions for individuals with complex trauma? → By developing individualized treatment plans based on the person’s history and needs.
15. Which principle ensures that clients with disabilities are treated fairly and receive equitable access to trauma services? → Justice
16. Which of the following best describes 'window of tolerance' in trauma neurobiology? → The optimal arousal zone where a person can process experiences effectively
17. What is the role of the provider's self-care in trauma-informed care? → Self-care ensures providers remain healthy and able to give effective care.
18. Why is early intervention important for trauma survivors? → It helps prevent the escalation of trauma symptoms and supports faster healing.
19. What is a key strategy for advocating for access to healthcare for individuals with disabilities? → Ensuring access to affordable, specialized healthcare services and resources.
20. In crisis intervention terminology, 'defusing' is best described as: → A brief informal discussion shortly after a critical incident to reduce immediate stress
21. What legal term describes the obligation practitioners have to report suspected child abuse or neglect? → Mandatory reporting
22. Which element of safety planning specifically addresses reducing access to means of self-harm? → Means restriction or lethal means counseling
23. A person with an intellectual disability is in acute crisis following a traumatic event. Which initial stabilization approach is MOST appropriate? → Using simple, concrete, and predictable interventions
24. What must a CDT practitioner do when they discover that an agency's policies are creating harm for clients with trauma and disability? → Advocate for policy change through appropriate channels while maintaining client safety
25. Which concept describes the transformation of STS into a source of professional growth and increased empathy when properly processed? → Vicarious resilience
26. What is a common trauma response in individuals with physical disabilities? → Increased dependency, anxiety, or avoidance behaviors.
27. What role does cultural competence play in trauma-informed care? → It helps care providers respect and address the cultural needs of individuals.
28. Why is it important to recognize disability-specific trauma responses? → It ensures a personalized and effective care approach for individuals with disabilities.
29. What early warning sign should a CDT practitioner recognize as a possible indicator of developing secondary traumatic stress? → Dreading sessions with certain clients or feeling emotionally numb after client contact
30. Which concept describes the body's physical encoding of traumatic stress, relevant to practitioners working with individuals with disabilities? → Somatic memory