CDR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which domain is covered in the CDR nutrition examination? → Nutrition science and clinical nutrition
2. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what does "standard precautions" in infection control include? → Hand hygiene, use of PPE, and safe handling of sharps for all patient contact
3. What osmolality range is generally considered safe for peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN) to avoid thrombophlebitis? → Less than 900 mOsm/L
4. What is the primary role of the Commission on Dietetic Registration (CDR)? → Credentialing registered dietitians (RD) and dietetic technicians (DTR)
5. What is the primary objective of professional practice in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam? → To ensure competence and proficiency in core professional practice concepts
6. Which level of biological organization represents the most complex in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam food science? → Ecosystem
7. Childhood obesity intervention programs for children aged 6–11 should focus PRIMARILY on which behavioral strategy? → Weight maintenance while the child grows taller
8. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what role does continuing education play in professional practice? → To keep professionals current with evolving standards, technologies, and best practices
9. Which complication is most commonly associated with long-term parenteral nutrition use? → Parenteral nutrition-associated liver disease (PNALD)
10. What does Kirkpatrick's Level 2 evaluation measure in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam training? → Learning — the degree to which participants acquired knowledge and skills
11. At approximately what age do iron stores from birth become depleted in full-term infants, increasing the need for dietary iron? → 4–6 months
12. A patient on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops refeeding syndrome. Which electrolyte abnormality is the hallmark of this condition? → Hypophosphatemia
13. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what is the primary purpose of formative assessment? → To monitor progress and provide feedback during the learning or development process
14. What is a controlled variable in an experiment related to Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam? → A factor that is kept constant throughout the experiment
15. Which ergogenic aid has the strongest evidence base for improving high-intensity, short-duration exercise performance? → Creatine monohydrate
16. Which type of assessment in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam compares an individual's performance to a predetermined standard? → Criterion-referenced assessment
17. Prior to menopause, women are less likely to be effected by heart disease. In the study of disease epidemiology, gender is known as a: → fixed determinant
18. What is the correct order of priority in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam patient care? → Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC)
19. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what does the PDCA cycle stand for? → Plan, Do, Check, Act
20. What is the minimum energy availability threshold below which the Female Athlete Triad risk significantly increases? → 30 kcal/kg FFM/day
21. Which breastfeeding characteristic makes human milk superior to infant formula for immune protection in newborns? → Presence of secretory IgA and lactoferrin
22. What is a key benefit of implementing performance metrics in Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam food service management? → Providing measurable data to track progress and inform decision-making
23. A TPN solution containing dextrose, amino acids, and lipids in a single bag is called: → Total nutrient admixture (TNA) or 3-in-1 solution
24. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what does pH measure? → The acidity or alkalinity of a solution on a scale of 0 to 14
25. What is the format of the CDR nutrition examination? → Multiple-choice computer-based
26. What is the primary indication for using a nasojejunal (NJ) tube instead of a nasogastric (NG) tube? → High risk of aspiration due to gastroparesis or delayed gastric emptying
27. A patient receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a PEG tube develops diarrhea. Which intervention should be tried FIRST? → Slow the infusion rate and check for infectious causes
28. What is the primary purpose of heparin added to parenteral nutrition solutions? → Reduce risk of catheter occlusion and thrombosis
29. In Commission on Dietetic Registration Exam, what is the primary purpose of patient assessment in clinical nutrition? → To gather comprehensive information about the patient's condition to guide care decisions
30. What is the recommended fluid intake guideline for athletes exercising in a warm environment? → Consume 400–800 mL per hour based on sweat rate