CDP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. How does incident response improve security in DevSecOps? → Ensures security breaches are identified, contained, and mitigated
2. In the STRIDE threat model, what does the letter 'T' represent? → Tampering
3. What is the primary purpose of a runbook in incident response? → To provide step-by-step procedures for handling specific incident types
4. How does continuing education relate to incident response & disaster recovery for CDP certified professionals? → It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices
5. Which practice helps developers find and fix security issues before code is merged? → Security-focused code review (peer review)
6. When implementing incident response & disaster recovery practices, what should a CDP professional prioritize first? → Compliance with established standards and protocols
7. Container image signing and verification using tools like Cosign or Notary helps ensure: → Only trusted, unmodified images are deployed in the cluster
8. Why is automation important in DevSecOps? → Reduces manual errors and accelerates the development process
9. What is the scoring range for CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) base scores? → 0.0 to 10.0
10. Which quality improvement method is most applicable to security architecture & network defense in Certified DevSecOps Professional? → Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle
11. A Kubernetes PodSecurityContext setting `readOnlyRootFilesystem: true` helps security by: → Stopping attackers from writing malicious files to the container filesystem
12. What is a common challenge professionals face when applying incident response & disaster recovery principles in Certified DevSecOps Professional? → Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application
13. Why is vulnerability management crucial in DevSecOps? → Reduces the likelihood of exploitation by attackers
14. How should a CDP professional handle a situation where cloud infrastructure & deployment protocols conflict with practical constraints? → Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities
15. What is the National Vulnerability Database (NVD) primarily used for in vulnerability management? → Enriching CVE records with CVSS severity scores and additional metadata
16. Which tool category performs Static Application Security Testing (SAST)? → Source code analyzers
17. What is security automation in DevSecOps? → Using tools and scripts to automatically perform security tasks
18. Which metric measures how long an attacker remains in an environment before detection, directly reflecting monitoring program gaps? → Dwell time (Mean Time to Detect)
19. Which anomaly detection technique is best suited for detecting insider threats in a DevSecOps environment? → User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
20. Which technology trend is most likely to impact cloud infrastructure & deployment in the CDP field in coming years? → Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting
21. What is a common challenge professionals face when applying automation & scripting fundamentals principles in Certified DevSecOps Professional? → Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application
22. Which attack technique involves exploiting a vulnerability inside a container to gain access to the host operating system? → Container escape
23. How does continuing education relate to security architecture & network defense for CDP certified professionals? → It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices
24. Which of the following best describes a key competency required for automation & scripting fundamentals in CDP certification? → Critical thinking and evidence-based decision making
25. Which runtime security tool monitors container behavior at runtime to detect anomalous activity such as unexpected system calls? → Falco
26. What is the main goal of DevSecOps? → Integrate security practices within the DevOps process
27. What is continuous monitoring in DevSecOps? → Constant tracking of systems to identify potential threats
28. Secrets management in the SDLC ensures that: → API keys and credentials are never hardcoded in source code
29. What is a common challenge professionals face when applying cloud infrastructure & deployment principles in Certified DevSecOps Professional? → Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application
30. Enabling audit logging in Kubernetes provides security value by: → Recording all requests to the API server for forensic investigation and anomaly detection