CDIP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDIP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which MS-DRG grouping methodology assigns patients to categories based on their principal diagnosis, procedures, and comorbidities? → MS-DRG
2. Which federal law establishes patients' rights to access and amend their health records and sets privacy protections relevant to documentation integrity? → HIPAA Privacy Rule
3. Which of the following conditions requires the most stringent clinical validation because it is frequently targeted in OIG Work Plans and payer audits? → Sepsis and severe sepsis
4. When a physician does not respond to a query, the CDI specialist should: → Escalate per facility policy and follow up appropriately
5. In CDI metrics, 'physician query compliance' differs from 'physician query agreement' in that compliance measures: → Whether the physician responded at all, regardless of the answer
6. In the context of physician queries, what does 'response rate' indicate? → The proportion of sent queries that receive a physician response
7. Under ICD-10-CM, malnutrition documented in a hospitalized patient is best supported by which clinical indicator for CDI purposes? → Low prealbumin or albumin levels with reduced oral intake and weight loss
8. A CDI specialist identifies a patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 and type 2 diabetes. The physician has not linked them. What is the correct approach? → Query the physician to determine if the CKD is due to diabetes
9. Which tool is MOST appropriate for identifying systemic documentation education gaps across a CDI team? → Root cause analysis of query denials and coding discrepancy patterns
10. Which condition would most likely qualify as a hospital-acquired condition (HAC) under the CMS HAC Reduction Program? → Stage III pressure ulcer that developed after day 2 of hospitalization
11. Under ICD-10-PCS, which approach value is used when a procedure is performed entirely through a natural or artificial opening? → Via Natural or Artificial Opening
12. A CDI department tracks the number of queries that result in a documentation change versus total queries issued. This is called the: → Agreement rate
13. CMS's Two-Midnight Rule primarily affects which type of patient status determination? → Inpatient admission criteria
14. Which metric best measures CDI program effectiveness in improving specificity of documented diagnoses? → CC/MCC capture rate
15. A CDI specialist notices a physician consistently documents 'pneumonia' without specifying the type. What is the MOST appropriate first step? → Submit a physician query requesting clarification of the pneumonia type
16. In the MS-DRG grouping logic, what happens when NEITHER a CC nor an MCC is present for a condition that has a three-way DRG split? → The case groups to the base (lowest-weight) DRG without CC/MCC
17. Which metric is BEST monitored through CDI software analytics dashboards to evaluate program effectiveness? → Query response rate and case mix index (CMI) trend over time
18. Which condition is NOT reportable as an additional diagnosis under UHDDS guidelines? → A condition that existed prior to admission but had no effect on care
19. Which of the following is an example of a documentation guideline violation? → Including a secondary diagnosis that is not supported by the documentation
20. A query is sent to clarify whether a patient's respiratory failure is acute, chronic, or acute-on-chronic. This is an example of what type of query opportunity? → Specificity clarification
21. Which of the following CDI metrics is MOST directly tied to MS-DRG reimbursement optimization? → Relative weight per discharge
22. Which ICD-10-CM guideline governs the sequencing of a condition that develops as a complication of a procedure? → Guideline I.C.19.g for complications of care
23. A physician responds to a query by writing a late entry addendum to the medical record. This response is considered: → Acceptable as long as the addendum is dated, timed, and authenticated per facility policy
24. A hospital's CDI team wants to measure how often records are reviewed before the patient is discharged. Which metric does this describe? → Concurrent review rate
25. Which metric would BEST help a CDI manager identify which CDI specialists need additional training on sepsis documentation? → Sepsis-specific query rate and agreement rate by specialist
26. A CDI program tracks 'average query lag time.' This metric is important because it measures: → How long it takes a physician to respond after a query is sent
27. A CDI team is benchmarking its physician query response rate. The industry benchmark is typically considered to be: → Above 70%
28. What is the primary purpose of CDI-specific software workflow queues? → To prioritize and track records requiring clarification or query
29. Which organization sets the guidelines for clinical documentation in healthcare settings? → Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
30. The CMS Conditions of Participation (CoPs) for hospitals primarily address: → Health and safety standards hospitals must meet to participate in Medicare and Medicaid