CCTC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CCTC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of intestinal rejection? → Intermittent low-grade fever and high stoma output
2. Machine perfusion of kidneys offers which primary advantage over static cold storage? → Allows continuous viability assessment and active removal of ischemic byproducts
3. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient? → Blood Type AB
4. Standard post-transplant prophylaxis with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) protects against which two pathogens simultaneously? → PJP and Toxoplasma gondii
5. Cold ischemia time (CIT) is measured from which point to which point? → Aortic cross-clamp and cold flush in the donor to reperfusion in the recipient
6. What should be facilitated as part of waitlist management? → Maintaining listing status per OPTN policies
7. Nicotine use is most critically addressed in pre-transplant evaluation for which organ recipient population? → Lung and heart transplant recipients
8. The donor-recipient CMV serostatus combination associated with the HIGHEST risk of CMV disease post-transplant is: → Donor positive / Recipient negative (D+/R−)
9. The Stanford Integrated Psychosocial Assessment for Transplant (SIPAT) is a tool used to: → Provide a standardized psychosocial risk score to guide transplant candidacy decisions
10. A transplant candidate has a calculated Panel Reactive Antibody (cPRA) of 98%. What is the primary clinical implication of this value? → The candidate is immunologically sensitized to antigens present in 98% of the donor pool.
11. Prophylaxis against which organism is typically discontinued first (at 3 months post-transplant) in standard-risk transplant recipients? → CMV (valganciclovir)
12. Which of the following is required for a legal declaration of brain death in a potential organ donor? → Irreversible cessation of all brain functions including the brainstem
13. In the data collection and evaluation process for potential transplant candidates, what type of consultations might be recommended? → Infectious disease, psychosocial, and dietitian consultations
14. Which live vaccine is CONTRAINDICATED in immunocompromised solid organ transplant recipients? → MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
15. The Maastricht classification in DCD donation categorizes donors by: → The circumstances and timing of cardiac death leading to donation
16. What is an essential aspect of waitlist management for transplant candidates? → Documenting and recording updated diagnostic and lab results
17. Which of the following immunological tests is performed to determine a transplant candidate's sensitization to a broad panel of potential donor antigens? → Panel Reactive Antibody (PRA) screening
18. What is the term for chronic rejection in lung transplants? → Bronchiolitis obliterans
19. What is the typical cold ischemia time for a heart during transplantation? → 4 hours
20. When a transplant candidate reports a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the transplant coordinator should: → Ensure the candidate is connected with mental health treatment and document stability
21. What should be communicated to potential living donors and candidates as part of preoperative care? → The details of surgical consent
22. BK virus nephropathy is a serious complication primarily seen in which transplant recipient population? → Kidney transplant recipients
23. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication for living kidney donation according to most transplant center guidelines? → A diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
24. Normothermic machine perfusion (NMP) differs from hypothermic machine perfusion (HMP) in that NMP: → Maintains the organ at physiologic temperature with oxygenated blood or perfusate
25. Which opportunistic infection is most commonly caused by reactivation of a latent fungal infection in immunocompromised transplant recipients in the US? → Pneumocystis jirovecii (PJP)
26. How does UNOS prioritize organ allocation? → By medical urgency
27. What is the primary role of an Organ Procurement Organization (OPO) in the transplantation process? → Coordinating organ recovery, preservation, and allocation
28. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) reactivation post-transplant is most concerning because it is associated with the development of: → Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)
29. The Kidney Donor Profile Index (KDPI) is primarily used to: → Estimate the relative risk of graft failure compared to an ideal kidney donor
30. What action should be taken if potential transplant candidates or living donors have specific educational needs? → Tailor education to their individual needs