Mixed Deck — All CCSP Topics Flashcards

A wrestler presents with tinea corporis (ringworm). Per NFHS wrestling rules, when may the athlete return to competition?

Answer: After 72 hours (minimum) of appropriate systemic antifungal treatment with covered/resolved lesions

NFHS requires at least 72 hours of appropriate antifungal treatment and covered/non-active lesions before a wrestler may return to competition.

Which modality is most indicated for reducing acute post-surgical knee edema in the first 72 hours?

Answer: Cryotherapy with intermittent compression

Cryotherapy with intermittent compression reduces post-surgical edema via vasoconstriction and mechanical lymphatic pumping.

In periodization, a mesocycle typically refers to:

Answer: A training block of 3–6 weeks focused on developing specific physiological qualities

A mesocycle is an intermediate-length training block (typically 3–6 weeks) within a macrocycle, targeting specific adaptations such as hypertrophy, strength, or power development.

A 16-year-old soccer player is removed from a match after a head-to-head collision. On the sideline, she reports a headache and dizziness but denies loss of consciousness. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action for a Certified Chiropractic Sports Physician (CCSP) to take?

Answer: Remove the athlete from play for the remainder of the day and advise a follow-up evaluation, regardless of symptom duration.

The consensus from the 6th International Conference on Concussion in Sport is that any athlete suspected of having a concussion must be immediately removed from play and should not be allowed to return on the same day. The CCSP's primary responsibility is to ensure athlete safety. While a SCAT6 is a crucial evaluation tool, the immediate decision is removal from play. Cervical evaluation and treatment may be necessary later, but it is not the first priority, and same-day return to play is contraindicated.

The Modified SITS test (shoulder instability assessment) is LEAST appropriate in which sideline scenario?

Answer: Suspected posterior glenohumeral dislocation with neurovascular compromise

Neurovascular compromise with a suspected dislocation is a surgical emergency — sideline instability testing is contraindicated and delays necessary care.

An endurance athlete asks about altitude training camps. Which nutritional intervention is MOST important to support hematological adaptations?

Answer: Adequate iron stores before and during altitude exposure

Adequate iron is essential for altitude adaptation because erythropoiesis increases dramatically and iron deficiency limits hemoglobin production.

Relative Energy Deficiency in Sport (RED-S) primarily results from:

Answer: Low energy availability due to insufficient caloric intake relative to exercise energy expenditure

RED-S occurs when dietary energy intake is insufficient relative to exercise energy expenditure, impairing hormonal, bone, and metabolic function.

A cyclist presents with anterior knee pain. Raising the saddle height primarily reduces stress on the:

Answer: Patellar tendon

Lowering the saddle increases knee flexion angle and patellar tendon load; raising the saddle reduces peak knee flexion and patellar tendon stress.

Which clinical finding best differentiates a complete Achilles tendon rupture from a partial tear?

Answer: Positive Thompson (Simmonds) test

A positive Thompson test (absence of plantarflexion when the calf is squeezed with the patient prone) confirms complete Achilles tendon rupture.

A CCSP applying phonophoresis would select which coupling medium to drive a topical anti-inflammatory into a swimmer's rotator cuff?

Answer: Medicated gel containing the anti-inflammatory agent

In phonophoresis, the medication is incorporated into the coupling gel so that ultrasound's mechanical effects drive it transdermally into the target tissue.

Kinesio taping applied in a 'Y' strip over the quadriceps is PRIMARILY intended to:

Answer: Facilitate muscle activation and reduce swelling

The Y-strip Kinesio tape technique lifts the skin to decompress lymphatic channels and facilitate muscle by altering sensory input.

A collegiate soccer player complains of significant muscle soreness and fatigue following intense training sessions. To optimize recovery, what is the recommended timing and composition of a post-exercise meal or snack?

Answer: A meal containing 1.0-1.2 g/kg of carbohydrates and 15-25g of protein within 30-60 minutes post-exercise.

The post-exercise period is a critical window for recovery. Consuming carbohydrates helps replenish depleted muscle glycogen, while protein provides the amino acids necessary for muscle repair and synthesis. The recommendation is to consume 1.0-1.2 g/kg of body weight of carbohydrates and a moderate amount of high-quality protein (15-25g) within the first 30-60 minutes after exercise to maximize glycogen resynthesis and muscle protein synthesis.

A football lineman experiences acute knee pain and swelling after a valgus force with the foot planted. Lachman test is positive but valgus stress test is negative. What is the isolated injury?

Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

A positive Lachman test with negative valgus stress test indicates an isolated ACL injury without MCL involvement.

A wrestler has a subacute shoulder injury with weakness in external rotation and a positive drop arm test. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely torn?

Answer: Supraspinatus

Supraspinatus tears are the most common rotator cuff injuries and produce a positive drop arm test due to loss of abduction strength in the mid-range.

A cross-country skier is treated with cupping therapy for thoracic myofascial pain. The characteristic round skin discolorations post-treatment result from:

Answer: Extravasation of red blood cells into the dermis due to negative pressure

The negative pressure created by cupping draws blood into the local tissue, causing capillary rupture and RBC extravasation that appears as round ecchymotic marks.

A wrestler presents with severe ear pain and a fluctuant, non-tender swelling of the auricle after repeated blunt trauma. What is the correct immediate management?

Answer: Aspiration and pressure dressing

Auricular hematoma (cauliflower ear) requires prompt aspiration and application of a pressure dressing to prevent cartilage necrosis and permanent deformity.

When treating a Grade II lateral ankle sprain, which intervention should be prioritized in the subacute phase (days 4–14)?

Answer: Functional rehabilitation with proprioceptive training

Functional rehabilitation with proprioceptive training restores neuromuscular control and reduces re-sprain risk in Grade II ankle sprains.

An athlete with known anxiety disorder sustains a concussion. Why is this comorbidity clinically significant for concussion management?

Answer: Pre-existing anxiety is associated with prolonged recovery and symptom amplification

Pre-existing anxiety is a well-established risk modifier for prolonged concussion recovery, as psychological factors amplify somatic symptom reporting and complicate clinical decision-making.

A collegiate athlete asks about using pseudoephedrine for nasal congestion before a competition. What should the CCSP advise?

Answer: It is permitted by WADA but may be banned by the NCAA above certain urinary thresholds

Pseudoephedrine was removed from the WADA Prohibited List in 2004 but remains monitored, and the NCAA restricts it above a urinary concentration of 10 mcg/mL.

An athlete signs a liability waiver before participating in a high-risk training program supervised by the CCSP. This waiver most directly invokes which legal concept?

Answer: Assumption of risk

Assumption of risk is the legal concept where a participant voluntarily accepts the inherent dangers of an activity.