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CCS Pharmacology & Cardiovascular Medications Flashcards

6 cards from real CCS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Which reversal agent is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin?

    Answer: Protamine sulfate

    Protamine sulfate binds and neutralizes heparin, reversing its anticoagulant effects within minutes of administration.

  2. A patient receiving IV alteplase (tPA) for STEMI should NOT receive which medication simultaneously?

    Answer: Unfractionated heparin bolus >5,000 units

    Large heparin boluses are contraindicated with tPA administration as they significantly increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage.

  3. Which calcium channel blocker is most selective for vascular smooth muscle and is preferred for hypertension?

    Answer: Amlodipine

    Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker with high vascular selectivity, minimal cardiac depression, and a long half-life ideal for hypertension management.

  4. The recommended adult dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest per AHA guidelines is:

    Answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

    AHA guidelines recommend 1 mg IV/IO epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during cardiac arrest to support coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

  5. Which medication is a direct thrombin inhibitor used as an alternative to heparin in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

    Answer: Argatroban

    Argatroban is an intravenous direct thrombin inhibitor approved for anticoagulation in HIT, as it does not cross-react with HIT antibodies.

  6. Which drug class is preferred for rate control in atrial fibrillation with preserved ejection fraction?

    Answer: Beta-blockers or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

    Beta-blockers and non-dihydropyridine CCBs (diltiazem, verapamil) slow AV nodal conduction and are first-line for ventricular rate control in AF with preserved EF.