CCRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CCRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A spontaneous awakening trial (SAT) paired with a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT) is associated with which outcome? → Reduced ventilator days and shorter ICU stay
2. A patient in the ICU develops torsades de pointes (polymorphic VT associated with a prolonged QT). Which treatment is most appropriate? → Magnesium sulfate 1–2 g IV over 5–10 minutes
3. Nonmaleficence is best demonstrated when a nurse: → Double-checks a high-alert medication dose before administration
4. Which scoring tool quantifies the degree of organ dysfunction across six systems in critically ill sepsis patients? → SOFA score
5. A ventilated patient suddenly desaturates with absent breath sounds on the right and tracheal deviation to the left. The priority action is: → Needle decompression for tension pneumothorax
6. A patient in septic shock remains hypotensive after adequate fluid resuscitation. Which vasopressor is the recommended first-line agent? → Norepinephrine
7. Which sign indicates worsening intra-abdominal hypertension toward abdominal compartment syndrome? → Decreased urine output with elevated peak airway pressures
8. A widened pulse pressure with bounding pulses and low diastolic pressure is most consistent with: → Early/warm septic shock
9. Which positioning intervention improves oxygenation and mortality in moderate-to-severe ARDS? → Prone positioning
10. Which physiologic change explains why central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) may be elevated in late sepsis? → Impaired cellular oxygen extraction at the tissue level
11. Which complication is the patient at greatest risk for if the arterial line flush bag pressure falls below 300 mmHg? → Backflow of blood and clot formation in the line
12. A patient has a PaO2 of 55 mmHg on room air with a normal PaCO2. This finding is most consistent with which type of respiratory failure? → Type I (hypoxemic) respiratory failure
13. What is the primary physiologic benefit of applying PEEP? → Recruiting collapsed alveoli to improve oxygenation
14. When myocardial dysfunction causes low cardiac output despite adequate volume and MAP in sepsis, which inotrope is recommended? → Dobutamine
15. Plateau pressure should be maintained below which value to limit ventilator-induced lung injury? → 30 cm H2O
16. A patient develops muffled heart sounds, hypotension, and jugular venous distention. What life-threatening condition is suspected? → Cardiac tamponade
17. A persistently low SvO2 (45%) most likely reflects: → Increased oxygen extraction from inadequate delivery
18. An apnea test for brain death is considered positive (supporting brain death) when which result occurs? → No respiratory effort despite a rising PaCO2 above the threshold
19. A trauma patient on massive transfusion develops oozing from IV sites and mucous membranes. Which condition should be suspected? → Disseminated intravascular coagulation
20. A patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) suddenly becomes hypotensive. What is the priority action? → Assess fluid removal rate and circuit
21. A patient with a small bowel obstruction is at greatest risk for which complication? → Bowel ischemia and perforation
22. Which type of shock is characterized by a low systemic vascular resistance and a high cardiac output in its early phase? → Septic (distributive) shock
23. A patient develops disequilibrium syndrome during hemodialysis. What causes this? → Rapid shift of solutes causing cerebral edema
24. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment for symptomatic third-degree (complete) heart block with bradycardia? → Transcutaneous pacing
25. A trauma patient develops dark, tea-colored urine after a crush injury. Which complication should be suspected? → Rhabdomyolysis
26. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis? → Type I (IgE-mediated)
27. Tranexamic acid (TXA) is most beneficial when administered to a trauma patient within what timeframe? → Within 3 hours of injury
28. Which assessment is most important after placement of a sengstaken-Blakemore (esophageal balloon) tube? → Monitor for airway obstruction from balloon migration
29. Which laboratory value is used to monitor warfarin therapy? → INR/PT
30. A patient with adrenal (Addisonian) crisis presents with hypotension unresponsive to fluids. What is the priority pharmacologic treatment? → IV hydrocortisone