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Patient Management Flashcards

7 cards from real CCEP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Which neurological screen is most important before performing cervicothoracic junction manipulation in a patient with radiating upper extremity symptoms?

    Answer: Upper motor neuron assessment including Hoffman's sign

    Upper motor neuron signs (e.g., Hoffman's sign, hyperreflexia, clonus) suggest cervical myelopathy, which is a contraindication to high-velocity manipulation.

  2. A patient with plantar fasciitis fails to improve after 6 weeks of conservative care. The next most appropriate step is to:

    Answer: Re-evaluate biomechanics, modify the plan, and consider co-management or referral

    Lack of progress after 6 weeks warrants re-evaluation of the diagnosis, biomechanical contributing factors, and consideration of co-management or referral.

  3. In managing a pediatric patient (age 8) with a suspected Salter-Harris Type II fracture of the distal radius, the chiropractor should:

    Answer: Refer to orthopedics; growth plate injuries require specialist management

    Growth plate (Salter-Harris) fractures in children require orthopedic referral to prevent premature physeal closure and limb length discrepancy.

  4. Which special test is used to assess integrity of the ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow?

    Answer: Valgus stress test at 30° elbow flexion

    The valgus stress test at 30° elbow flexion isolates the ulnar collateral ligament by unlocking the olecranon from the fossa and directly stressing the medial stabilizer.

  5. A patient's treatment plan requires modifying exercise intensity due to a cardiovascular comorbidity. The chiropractor's best course of action is to:

    Answer: Consult with the patient's cardiologist before modifying the exercise prescription

    Consulting the cardiologist ensures exercise modifications are safe given the patient's cardiovascular status and reflects appropriate interprofessional practice.

  6. Which finding on a shoulder examination is most consistent with a full-thickness supraspinatus tear rather than tendinopathy?

    Answer: Complete inability to initiate abduction with a positive drop arm test

    A positive drop arm test with inability to maintain or initiate abduction suggests a full-thickness rotator cuff tear disrupting active force transmission.

  7. A patient in acute care for a Grade II ankle sprain asks when they can return to sport. The most evidence-based criterion for return-to-sport clearance is:

    Answer: Restoration of full strength, proprioception, and sport-specific functional testing

    Return-to-sport decisions should be based on functional criteria including full strength, balance, proprioception, and successful completion of sport-specific tasks.