CBRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CBRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A burn patient states they are not interested in learning about scar management because 'it won't make a difference anyway.' This response MOST likely reflects: → Low self-efficacy and possible depression affecting motivation
2. Which outcome measure is used in burn rehabilitation programs to assess a patient's level of functional independence in self-care and mobility? → Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
3. Gabapentin is increasingly used as an adjunct analgesic in burn patients primarily to treat: → Neuropathic pain and pruritus (itching) during wound healing
4. In Certified Burn Registered Nurse practice, what is the FIRST step when a safety hazard is identified in the workplace? → Immediately secure the area and report the hazard
5. Which risk management approach is MOST effective for CBRN professionals when evaluating potential workplace hazards? → Proactive hazard identification and assessment
6. The Parkland formula for burn resuscitation in the first 24 hours uses which fluid? → Lactated Ringer's solution
7. Which insulin-related therapy has been studied in burn patients to shift catabolism toward anabolism and support muscle protein synthesis? → Insulin infusion combined with adequate nutrition to promote anabolic metabolism
8. Alpha-2 agonists (e.g., dexmedetomidine) are used in burn ICU patients primarily to: → Provide sedation and opioid-sparing analgesia while maintaining arousability
9. Which route of nutrition is preferred for burn patients when the gastrointestinal tract is functional? → Enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube
10. How should Certified Burn Registered Nurse professionals handle technical procedures that have been updated or revised? → Review the updates, complete any required training, and implement the revised procedures
11. When a CBRN professional identifies a potential regulatory violation, the CORRECT first step is to: → Document the violation and report it through proper channels
12. What role does silver sulfadiazine play in wound care? → Topical antimicrobial for burn wounds
13. Which practice is essential for preventing cross-contamination in burn units? → Hand hygiene and use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
14. What surgical technique is commonly used to release a burn scar contracture that limits joint function? → Contracture release with Z-plasty
15. A 70 kg patient has 40% TBSA burns. Using the Parkland formula, how many mL of Lactated Ringer's should be administered in the first 8 hours post-burn? → 5,600 mL
16. Which complication can result from overfeeding burn patients with excessive carbohydrates? → Hepatic steatosis and CO2 retention
17. In Certified Burn Registered Nurse practice, what is the CORRECT sequence when performing a technical procedure? → Plan, prepare, execute, verify, and document
18. How frequently should ongoing assessments be conducted in Certified Burn Registered Nurse practice? → At regular intervals based on established protocols and as conditions change
19. Which statement about anxiolytics in burn pain management is accurate? → Anxiolytics reduce the anxiety component of pain but should be combined with analgesics
20. A patient sustains a burn injury. Which mediator is primarily responsible for the early increase in capillary permeability? → Histamine
21. Which nutritional route is preferred for burn patients who have a functioning gastrointestinal tract? → Early enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube
22. During a dressing change, the nurse notes green discoloration and a fruity odor from a burn wound. Which pathogen is most likely responsible? → Pseudomonas aeruginosa
23. A teenager with facial burns refuses to attend school because classmates 'will stare.' Which intervention addresses this concern MOST directly? → Coordinate a school re-entry program with education for classmates and staff
24. The hypermetabolic response following major burn injury peaks at approximately what time post-burn? → 5-10 days
25. Why is pain management critical in burn care? → It improves patient comfort and facilitates healing
26. What is a burn contracture, and which anatomical areas are most commonly affected? → Scar tissue limiting joint movement; neck and axilla are common sites
27. When educating a burn patient about grief related to body image loss, the nurse should recognize that: → Grief is a normal response to body image loss and follows a non-linear process
28. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with early disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in a burn patient? → Prolonged PT/PTT, decreased fibrinogen, and thrombocytopenia
29. During dressing changes, which non-pharmacological intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing burn pain and anxiety? → Virtual reality distraction therapy
30. Which nutritional marker is more responsive than albumin for monitoring short-term nutritional status in burn patients? → Prealbumin (transthyretin)