CBM Safety Procedures & Emergency Response 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A 'trigger point' in a prescribed burn emergency action plan is best described as:
- The moment ignition is authorized to begin
- A pre-identified condition that automatically activates a specific response action (Correct answer)
- The point at which the burn is declared out of prescription
- A GPS coordinate marking the burn unit boundary
Correct answer: A pre-identified condition that automatically activates a specific response action
Trigger points are pre-identified conditions (weather, fire behavior, resource status) that, when reached, automatically initiate a specified emergency action.
Question 2: Which type of extinguisher is most appropriate for putting out a small ignition equipment fire involving flammable liquid?
- Class A (water-based)
- Class B (dry chemical or CO2) (Correct answer)
- Class C (halon)
- Class D (dry powder)
Correct answer: Class B (dry chemical or CO2)
Class B extinguishers are rated for flammable liquid fires such as those involving drip torches or fuel cans.
Question 3: Under NWCG guidelines, who has the authority to halt a prescribed burn at any time due to safety concerns?
- Only the agency administrator
- The meteorologist on duty
- Any crew member or the burn boss (Correct answer)
- Only the burn boss
Correct answer: Any crew member or the burn boss
Any crew member who observes an unsafe condition has the authority and responsibility to call a halt; the burn boss also retains this authority.
Question 4: What is the purpose of a 'lookout' in the LCES safety system?
- To monitor air quality for public health reporting
- To observe fire behavior and warn crews of changing conditions (Correct answer)
- To keep unauthorized personnel out of the burn unit
- To coordinate radio traffic between sectors
Correct answer: To observe fire behavior and warn crews of changing conditions
Lookouts are stationed where they can observe the fire and give early warning of dangerous changes in fire behavior or weather.
Question 5: Which action is MOST important when a prescribed burn threatens an unplanned structure?
- Continue burning and notify the structure owner afterward
- Immediately suppress the fire near the structure and notify emergency services (Correct answer)
- Document the threat and continue burn operations
- Redirect ignition away from the structure without pausing the burn
Correct answer: Immediately suppress the fire near the structure and notify emergency services
Suppression near threatened structures and immediate notification of emergency services protects lives and property while preventing escalation.
Question 6: What does 'relative humidity recovery' indicate for prescribed burn safety planning?
- The percentage of moisture returned to fuels overnight
- The increase in RH after sunset that reduces fire danger for the next day (Correct answer)
- The rate at which green vegetation absorbs atmospheric moisture
- The calibration correction applied to handheld humidity meters
Correct answer: The increase in RH after sunset that reduces fire danger for the next day
Adequate overnight RH recovery is critical to ensuring fine fuels re-moisten and fire behavior is more manageable during the next burning period.
Question 7: When should the emergency medical plan be reviewed with all burn personnel?
- Only when a medical emergency occurs
- During the morning briefing before each day's burn operations (Correct answer)
- At the end of the burn when writing the report
- Only if a crew member requests it
Correct answer: During the morning briefing before each day's burn operations
The emergency medical plan, including evacuation routes and nearest hospital location, must be briefed to all personnel before burn operations begin.
CBM Safety Procedures & Emergency Response 3
A 'trigger point' in a prescribed burn emergency action plan is best described as: