CSC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CSC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Intraoperative graft flow measurement using transit-time flowmetry is used to: → Verify graft patency and detect technical errors before chest closure
2. What phase, if any, comes last in a nursing procedure? → Record and report the procedure
3. Intraoperative TEE after mitral valve repair is used primarily to: → Assess residual regurgitation and confirm adequate valve function before chest closure
4. Which type of oxygenator is most commonly used in modern cardiopulmonary bypass circuits? → Hollow-fiber membrane oxygenator
5. What is the purpose of a left ventricular vent during cardiopulmonary bypass? → To prevent left ventricular distension and reduce myocardial work
6. Sternal wound infection after cardiac surgery is most commonly caused by: → Staphylococcus aureus
7. The SYNTAX score is used in coronary artery disease primarily to: → Quantify coronary anatomy complexity and guide CABG vs. PCI decision-making
8. Which blood product is most effective for reversing coagulopathy due to dilutional platelet loss after prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass? → Platelet concentrate
9. Which of the following criteria is true when weaning patients off of artificial ventilation during the early postoperative period? → Chest tube drainage of 40 mL/hr
10. What is the primary long-term consequence of leaving a large, unrestrictive VSD untreated beyond early childhood? → Eisenmenger syndrome with irreversible pulmonary vascular obstructive disease
11. The most important complication to monitor for in patients on veno-arterial ECMO after cardiac surgery is: → Limb ischemia from the femoral arterial cannula and left ventricular distension
12. The bidirectional Glenn procedure connects which two structures? → Superior vena cava end-to-side to the right pulmonary artery
13. Which intraoperative monitoring is considered standard for major cardiac surgery requiring CPB? → Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)
14. In a complete atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD), how many leaflets does the common AV valve typically contain? → Five leaflets spanning both the tricuspid and mitral annuli
15. Protamine is given after cardiopulmonary bypass primarily to: → Reverse heparin anticoagulation
16. The classic Blalock-Taussig (BT) shunt anastomoses which two structures? → Subclavian artery to ipsilateral pulmonary artery
17. The primary indication for the Impella device in cardiac surgery patients is: → Mechanical support for cardiogenic shock or high-risk procedures requiring LV unloading
18. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) in cardiac surgery patients is managed by substituting heparin with: → Bivalirudin or argatroban for anticoagulation during CPB
19. Vasoplegic syndrome after cardiac surgery is characterized by: → Severe hypotension with low systemic vascular resistance and preserved cardiac output
20. At what approximate age is Fontan completion typically performed following the bidirectional Glenn procedure? → 2 to 4 years of age
21. Which antifibrinolytic agent is most commonly used intraoperatively in US cardiac surgery to reduce bleeding? → Tranexamic acid
22. How sleepy does Azatadine normally make you feel? → Moderate
23. The hybrid coronary revascularization approach combines: → LIMA-to-LAD CABG with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for non-LAD lesions
24. The most reliable indicator of adequate renal perfusion in the immediate postoperative cardiac surgery patient is: → Urine output greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hour
25. The arterial filter in the CPB circuit is used primarily to: → Remove gaseous and particulate microemboli before arterial return
26. The most critical technical step when implanting a mechanical aortic prosthesis to avoid complications is: → Secure seating of the sewing ring without paravalvular gaps
27. Maintaining the postoperative pulmonary artery pressure at → Less than 25 mm Hg
28. The diameter threshold that generally triggers surgery for an ascending aortic aneurysm in a patient with a bicuspid aortic valve is: → 5.5 cm (or 5.0 cm with additional risk factors)
29. What is the preferred surgical option for mitral regurgitation due to posterior leaflet prolapse with good tissue quality? → Mitral valve repair
30. What are the two classifications of aneurysm? → Saccular and Fusiform