Cardiac Subspecialty Certification Flashcards
7 cards from real CSC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Cardiac Subspecialty Certification flashcards as text
A patient with mitral stenosis has a mitral valve area of 0.9 cm² and mean gradient of 12 mmHg at rest. She is in sinus rhythm with no significant mitral regurgitation. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
Answer: Percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC)
PMBC is the preferred intervention for severe symptomatic mitral stenosis with favorable valve morphology (Wilkins score ≤8) and no significant MR or LA thrombus.
Which blood pressure goal is recommended during the first 24 hours in a patient with acute aortic dissection (Type A) awaiting surgical repair?
Answer: SBP <120 mmHg and HR <60 bpm
Target SBP <120 mmHg and HR <60 bpm with IV beta-blockers (e.g., esmolol, labetalol) to reduce aortic wall stress before urgent surgical repair.
A 45-year-old with no cardiac history has a resting 12-lead ECG showing ST segment elevation in V1–V2 with a right bundle branch block pattern. He denies symptoms. Which condition should be PRIMARILY suspected?
Answer: Brugada syndrome
Spontaneous Type 1 Brugada pattern (coved ST elevation ≥2 mm in V1–V2 with RBBB morphology) in an asymptomatic patient is diagnostic of Brugada syndrome.
In a patient with long QT syndrome type 2 (LQT2), which environmental trigger is MOST likely to provoke a potentially fatal arrhythmia?
Answer: Auditory stimuli (e.g., loud sounds, alarm clocks)
LQT2 is caused by HERG (IKr) channel mutations and arrhythmias are most commonly triggered by auditory stimuli, particularly sudden loud noises.
A patient on warfarin for mechanical aortic valve (INR 2.8) needs urgent non-cardiac surgery. Which bridging strategy is MOST appropriate?
Answer: Stop warfarin; bridge with IV unfractionated heparin
Mechanical heart valves carry high thromboembolic risk; IV unfractionated heparin bridging is recommended when warfarin must be stopped for urgent surgery.
Which finding on right heart catheterization is MOST consistent with a large ventricular septal defect (VSD) with left-to-right shunt?
Answer: Step-up in oxygen saturation from right atrium to right ventricle
A significant oxygen saturation step-up (≥5–7%) from the right atrium to right ventricle indicates a left-to-right shunt at the ventricular level (VSD).
A patient with chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min) requires coronary angiography. Which strategy BEST reduces risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?
Answer: Iso-osmolar or low-osmolar contrast with IV saline hydration before and after
Use of low- or iso-osmolar contrast with adequate IV isotonic saline hydration remains the best-supported strategy to prevent contrast nephropathy.