Risk Management & Mitigation Flashcards
7 cards from real CAC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Risk Management & Mitigation flashcards as text
Under what circumstance should a veterinary chiropractor immediately terminate a treatment plan and refer the patient back to the attending veterinarian?
Answer: Progressive neurological deterioration is observed between chiropractic sessions
Progressive neurological decline between sessions indicates the condition is worsening and may require medical or surgical intervention beyond chiropractic scope.
Which professional liability risk is MOST directly reduced by maintaining current certification and continuing education in veterinary chiropractic?
Answer: Claims of negligence based on failure to use current standard-of-care techniques
Current certification and CE demonstrate adherence to evolving standards of care, which is a primary defense against professional negligence claims.
A veterinary chiropractor is treating a dog that is concurrently receiving corticosteroid therapy. The primary risk-management concern related to this medication is:
Answer: Long-term corticosteroid use can cause osteoporosis, increasing fracture risk during manipulation
Chronic corticosteroid therapy reduces bone mineral density, significantly increasing the risk of iatrogenic fracture during high-velocity manipulation.
When assessing a patient for chiropractic readiness, the 'red flag' symptom cluster of sudden-onset fecal and urinary incontinence combined with hindlimb weakness should prompt the practitioner to:
Answer: Immediately refer the patient for emergency veterinary evaluation for possible cauda equina syndrome
Sudden incontinence with hindlimb weakness is a red-flag presentation for cauda equina syndrome or acute myelopathy requiring urgent veterinary/surgical evaluation.
Which factor most significantly increases the risk of a vertebral artery injury during upper cervical manipulation in small animals?
Answer: Congenital atlantoaxial instability or hypoplastic dens
Atlantoaxial instability, often associated with an absent or hypoplastic dens, makes upper cervical manipulation particularly dangerous due to the risk of vertebral artery compromise or spinal cord injury.
To manage the risk of treatment-induced muscle splinting and secondary pain after an adjustment, the practitioner should advise the owner to:
Answer: Allow light activity, monitor for soreness lasting more than 48 hours, and report any new neurological signs
Light activity and a 48-hour soreness monitoring window allow normal post-adjustment responses while enabling early identification of abnormal reactions.
Which element of a pre-treatment risk assessment is MOST likely to reveal a relative contraindication specific to equine patients?
Answer: Radiographic evidence of ossifying spondylosis in the thoracolumbar junction
Ossifying spondylosis represents a relative contraindication because advanced bony bridging reduces spinal mobility and increases fracture risk during manipulation.