Certified Associate Constructor (CAC) - Level I — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Why do subprime auto finance companies typically price contracts at higher rates than prime lenders?
- Because subprime vehicles are always newer
- Because federal law sets a minimum subprime rate
- To offset higher expected default and loss rates (Correct answer)
- To avoid having to disclose the APR
Correct answer: To offset higher expected default and loss rates
Higher rates compensate for the greater probability of default and loss among borrowers with weaker credit.
Question 2: Under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA), what must a creditor generally provide after denying a credit application?
- A refund of any application fee only
- A copy of the applicant's full credit file
- An adverse action notice stating the principal reasons or the right to request them (Correct answer)
- A referral to another lender
Correct answer: An adverse action notice stating the principal reasons or the right to request them
ECOA/Regulation B requires an adverse action notice with specific reasons or notice of the right to obtain them.
Question 3: Which practice best reduces fair lending risk when dealers have discretion to mark up the buy rate?
- Cap markups and monitor pricing outcomes across borrower groups (Correct answer)
- Apply higher markups to thin-file borrowers only
- Let each dealer set unlimited markups
- Stop collecting any pricing data
Correct answer: Cap markups and monitor pricing outcomes across borrower groups
Markup caps plus disparity monitoring help detect and limit discriminatory pricing under ECOA.
Question 4: Absent other information, the FDCPA treats which hours as convenient for contacting a consumer?
- 7 a.m. to 10 p.m.
- 8 a.m. to 9 p.m. (Correct answer)
- 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.
- 8 a.m. to 8 p.m.
Correct answer: 8 a.m. to 9 p.m.
Collectors may assume calls between 8 a.m. and 9 p.m. local time are convenient.
Question 5: During a physical inspection of delivered hardware, an acceptance inspector discovers a dimension that falls outside the specified tolerance. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
- Immediately reject the entire shipment without further review
- Accept the item and note the deviation in the final report
- Request the contractor re-inspect the item internally
- Document the nonconformance and issue a discrepancy report for disposition (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Document the nonconformance and issue a discrepancy report for disposition
Documenting the nonconformance and issuing a discrepancy report follows proper procedure, allowing for formal disposition (accept, rework, reject) through the defined process.
Question 6: Under Regulation F, which voicemail content is a 'limited-content message' that is not treated as a communication?
- The consumer's name, a request to reply, the caller's name, and a callback number (Correct answer)
- The creditor's name and the account balance
- A statement that the account will be sent to legal
- The amount owed and the due date
Correct answer: The consumer's name, a request to reply, the caller's name, and a callback number
Regulation F defines a limited-content message as one that leaves out debt details and contains only certain items.
Question 7: A test is given to the same group twice, two weeks apart, and the scores are compared. What is being estimated?
- Inter-rater reliability
- Test-retest reliability (Correct answer)
- Content validity
- Predictive validity
Correct answer: Test-retest reliability
Test-retest reliability checks how stable scores are over time.
Question 8: During acceptance testing of software, what does 'regression testing' verify?
- That new features meet performance benchmarks
- That the software handles peak load conditions
- That the software meets security penetration standards
- That previously passing tests still pass after changes or fixes have been made to the software (Correct answer)
Correct answer: That previously passing tests still pass after changes or fixes have been made to the software
Regression testing confirms that changes to software have not broken previously verified functionality, ensuring stability throughout the development and acceptance process.
Question 9: What document must dealers display on used vehicles offered for sale under the FTC Used Car Rule?
- Monroney label
- Odometer statement
- Certificate of title
- Buyers Guide (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Buyers Guide
The Used Car Rule requires a Buyers Guide disclosing warranty or as-is status on used vehicles.
Question 10: Under the SCRA, which is generally required before repossessing a servicemember's vehicle financed before entering active duty?
- Approval from the CFPB
- A court order (Correct answer)
- A 10-day cure notice only
- Written permission from the commanding officer
Correct answer: A court order
The SCRA prohibits repossessing property purchased before service without a court order if a deposit or installment was paid before entering service.
Question 11: Which method best assesses an applicant's stability when credit history is limited?
- Review time at residence, time on job, and verifiable income (Correct answer)
- Use the applicant's age as the deciding factor
- Approve based solely on the dealer's recommendation
- Rely only on the vehicle's color and model
Correct answer: Review time at residence, time on job, and verifiable income
Residence and employment tenure plus verified income are standard stability indicators for thin-file applicants.
Question 12: Which financial statement shows a company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a single point in time?
- Balance sheet (Correct answer)
- Income statement
- Statement of cash flows
- Statement of retained earnings
Correct answer: Balance sheet
The balance sheet is a snapshot of financial position on a specific date.
Question 13: What is the best practice for documenting a customer complaint?
- Handle it verbally and leave no record
- Log the complaint, acknowledge it, escalate it under policy, and record the resolution (Correct answer)
- Tell the customer to submit it to the CFPB instead
- Record it only if the customer threatens legal action
Correct answer: Log the complaint, acknowledge it, escalate it under policy, and record the resolution
A complete complaint record shows fair treatment and supports regulatory review.
Question 14: Expected credit loss on a loan is commonly estimated using which formula?
- Credit score x loan term x interest rate
- Gross income x debt-to-income x term
- Probability of default x loss given default x exposure at default (Correct answer)
- Down payment x LTV x PTI
Correct answer: Probability of default x loss given default x exposure at default
Expected loss combines how likely default is, how much is lost if it happens, and the balance exposed.
Question 15: What does 'static pool' analysis help an auto finance company understand?
- Dealer lot inventory turnover
- How loans originated in the same period perform over time (Correct answer)
- The daily stock price
- Employee payroll costs
Correct answer: How loans originated in the same period perform over time
Static pool analysis tracks a fixed group of loans from a given origination period to measure losses and collections over time.
Question 16: An acceptance inspector notices that a contractor has made an unauthorized engineering change to a deliverable. What is the correct course of action?
- Ask the contractor to revert the change before reinspecting
- Ignore the change if the deliverable passes all performance tests
- Accept the item if it appears functionally adequate
- Suspend acceptance, document the unauthorized change, and escalate through the contract administration office (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Suspend acceptance, document the unauthorized change, and escalate through the contract administration office
Unauthorized changes violate contractual requirements; acceptance must be suspended, the change formally documented, and the issue escalated for formal engineering change disposition.
Question 17: Which privacy law requires financial institutions to give customers a notice about how their nonpublic personal information is shared?
- Fair Credit Billing Act
- Davis-Bacon Act
- Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Correct answer)
- Clayton Act
Correct answer: Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
GLBA requires privacy notices and safeguards for consumers' nonpublic personal information.
Question 18: Which Truth in Lending Act (TILA) disclosure expresses the cost of credit as a yearly rate?
- Amount financed
- Annual Percentage Rate (APR) (Correct answer)
- Finance charge
- Total of payments
Correct answer: Annual Percentage Rate (APR)
The APR is the cost of credit expressed as a yearly rate under Regulation Z.
Question 19: What is essential for effective compliance monitoring?
- Consistent documentation and reporting (Correct answer)
- Occasional compliance meetings
- Casual discussions
- Limited record-keeping
Correct answer: Consistent documentation and reporting
Consistent documentation and reporting are essential for effective compliance monitoring. Thorough records provide an auditable trail, demonstrating that the corporation has met its regulatory obligations and followed established procedures. Regular reporting allows management to track compliance performance, identify trends, and address any issues promptly, ensuring accountability and transparency.
Question 20: Which practice best protects customer data when working remotely?
- Emailing files to a personal account
- Using company-approved secure connections and locking screens when away (Correct answer)
- Writing passwords on sticky notes
- Using public Wi-Fi without a VPN
Correct answer: Using company-approved secure connections and locking screens when away
Approved secure connections and physical safeguards help meet GLBA Safeguards Rule expectations.
Question 21: A borrower has $2,100 in monthly debt payments (including the new car loan) and $6,000 gross monthly income. What is the debt-to-income (DTI) ratio?
- 40%
- 28%
- 35% (Correct answer)
- 30%
Correct answer: 35%
DTI = $2,100 / $6,000 = 0.35, or 35%.
Question 22: In indirect auto lending, who originates the retail installment contract with the consumer?
- The consumer's bank
- The dealer (Correct answer)
- The finance company
- The state DMV
Correct answer: The dealer
In indirect lending the dealer writes the retail installment contract and then assigns it to a finance company.
Question 23: Which of the following is a key difference between a direct and an indirect auto loan?
- Indirect loans cannot be used for used vehicles
- Direct loans are always subprime
- Direct loans never charge interest
- In a direct loan the consumer borrows straight from the lender rather than through the dealer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: In a direct loan the consumer borrows straight from the lender rather than through the dealer
Direct loans are made by the lender to the consumer, while indirect loans are originated by the dealer and assigned.
Question 24: What is the purpose of 'Acceptance Test Traceability' in technical inspection documentation?
- To create a billing record for inspection services rendered
- To establish a documented link between each contractual requirement and the specific test or inspection that verifies it (Correct answer)
- To record the names of all inspectors who worked on the project
- To track the physical location of test equipment
Correct answer: To establish a documented link between each contractual requirement and the specific test or inspection that verifies it
Acceptance test traceability ensures every contractual requirement has a corresponding verification activity, preventing gaps in coverage and providing evidence of complete compliance.
Question 25: Which verification technique best confirms residence for a funding stipulation?
- A recent utility bill in the applicant's name at the stated address (Correct answer)
- The address the applicant typed on the application
- A handwritten note from a friend
- A business card with the address
Correct answer: A recent utility bill in the applicant's name at the stated address
A recent third-party bill in the applicant's name provides independent proof of residence.
Question 26: Under the FTC Holder Rule, what must a consumer credit contract for a financed vehicle preserve?
- The dealer's right to repossess without a court order
- The consumer's right to cancel within three business days
- The lender's right to accelerate the debt without notice
- The consumer's claims and defenses against the seller, assertable against the holder (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The consumer's claims and defenses against the seller, assertable against the holder
The Holder Rule (16 CFR 433) requires a notice letting buyers assert seller-related claims and defenses against any holder of the contract.
Question 27: Under ECOA/Regulation B, how soon must a creditor notify an applicant of action taken on a completed credit application?
- Within 60 days
- Within 30 days (Correct answer)
- Within 10 days
- Within 90 days
Correct answer: Within 30 days
Regulation B requires notice of action taken within 30 days after receiving a completed application.
Question 28: Which federal law requires disclosure of the APR and finance charge on a consumer auto contract?
- Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
- Truth in Lending Act (Correct answer)
- Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
- Fair Labor Standards Act
Correct answer: Truth in Lending Act
TILA (Regulation Z) requires clear disclosure of APR, finance charge, amount financed, and total of payments.
Question 29: How many days does a consumer generally have to dispute a debt after receiving the FDCPA validation notice?
- 30 days (Correct answer)
- 60 days
- 10 days
- 15 days
Correct answer: 30 days
The validation notice gives the consumer 30 days to dispute the debt.
Question 30: A CAC professional identifies a critical defect during inspection. What is the correct immediate action?
- Continue processing and document the defect on the final report
- Allow the defect if it is below the AQL threshold
- Return the item to the supplier without documentation
- Quarantine the item and notify the responsible parties before any further processing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Quarantine the item and notify the responsible parties before any further processing
Critical defects require immediate quarantine and notification to prevent nonconforming items from advancing in the supply chain.
Question 31: Under the E-SIGN Act, what is required before a creditor can provide required disclosures electronically instead of on paper?
- A notarized signature from the consumer
- The consumer's affirmative consent after receiving required pre-consent disclosures (Correct answer)
- Nothing; electronic delivery is always allowed
- Approval from the state attorney general
Correct answer: The consumer's affirmative consent after receiving required pre-consent disclosures
E-SIGN requires the consumer's affirmative consent, given in a way that shows they can access the electronic format.
Certified Associate Constructor (CAC) - Level I
The Certified Associate Constructor (CAC) exam, administered by the American Institute of Constructors (AIC), validates entry-level construction management competency across engineering concepts, project management, materials, safety, and communication for professionals entering the construction industry.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds