Pharmacology and MAT Flashcards
7 cards from real CAADC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Pharmacology and MAT flashcards as text
A patient stabilized on buprenorphine/naloxone needs emergency surgery. The anesthesiologist asks about managing pain perioperatively. The MOST accurate guidance is:
Answer: Buprenorphine's high receptor affinity may reduce effectiveness of full opioid agonists; higher opioid doses or regional anesthesia may be needed
Buprenorphine's very high mu-opioid receptor affinity and partial agonism can competitively reduce the analgesic effect of full agonists, requiring higher doses or alternative analgesic strategies perioperatively.
Which of the following is a Schedule III controlled substance under the DEA Controlled Substances Act, relevant to MAT prescribing regulations?
Answer: Buprenorphine products approved for OUD
Buprenorphine is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance, which historically allowed office-based prescribing by waivered physicians (DATA 2000); methadone for OUD is Schedule II dispensed only through OTPs.
Varenicline (Chantix/Champix) supports smoking cessation primarily by:
Answer: Acting as a partial agonist at alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptors, reducing withdrawal and blocking nicotine reward
Varenicline partially stimulates nicotinic receptors to ease withdrawal while simultaneously blocking the receptor so nicotine produces less reward if the patient smokes.
A patient with opioid use disorder and chronic hepatitis C asks about starting MAT. Which statement about buprenorphine and liver function is most accurate?
Answer: Buprenorphine is safe to use with monitoring in mild-to-moderate hepatic impairment; severe impairment requires caution
Buprenorphine is hepatically metabolized via CYP3A4, and while mild-to-moderate impairment can be managed with monitoring, severe hepatic impairment warrants caution and possible dose adjustment.
Clonidine is sometimes used off-label during opioid detoxification. Its role is best described as:
Answer: An alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that reduces autonomic symptoms of opioid withdrawal such as sweating, anxiety, and hypertension
Clonidine reduces the noradrenergic hyperactivity underlying many opioid withdrawal symptoms by stimulating alpha-2 autoreceptors in the locus coeruleus.
A counselor notices a MAT patient's urine drug screen is positive for fentanyl but the patient denies use. Which scenario could produce a FALSE POSITIVE for opioids on an immunoassay screen?
Answer: Ingestion of large amounts of poppy seeds (morphine/codeine cross-reactivity)
Poppy seeds contain morphine and codeine, which can cross-react with immunoassay opioid screens and produce a positive result; fentanyl, however, typically requires a specific immunoassay due to structural differences.
Under the SAMHSA Opioid Treatment Program (OTP) regulations, which of the following is a requirement for methadone dispensing for OUD?
Answer: Patients must receive methadone only at a federally certified OTP clinic, with observed dosing initially
Federal regulations require methadone for OUD to be dispensed through federally certified OTPs, with initial daily observed dosing and take-home doses granted based on time in treatment and compliance.