CAA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CAA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A train-of-four (TOF) ratio of 0.9 or greater at the adductor pollicis muscle indicates: → Adequate recovery of neuromuscular function for extubation
2. Root cause analysis (RCA) in anesthesia quality improvement is primarily used to: → Identify systemic factors contributing to adverse events or near misses
3. Which intervention most effectively reduces the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) in high-risk patients? → Multimodal prophylaxis combining TIVA, ondansetron, and dexamethasone
4. What is the primary objective of communication & stakeholder engagement within the CAA professional framework? → Analyzing data systematically using validated assessment tools
5. In a circle breathing system, the PRIMARY function of the CO2 absorbent is to: → Absorb exhaled carbon dioxide to allow rebreathing
6. A surgeon requests that the CAA rush through the pre-op assessment due to OR scheduling pressure. What is the appropriate response? → Politely but firmly explain that a thorough assessment is required for patient safety
7. A patient scheduled for elective surgery is found to have an INR of 3.8 on preoperative labs. What is the most appropriate risk mitigation step? → Cancel surgery and reverse anticoagulation before rescheduling
8. A new regulation impacts anesthesia principles and techniques procedures. What should a CAA professional do first? → Ensuring compliance with current regulatory requirements and standards
9. The primary purpose of preoperative fasting (NPO) guidelines before elective surgery is to: → Reduce the risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents
10. What is the primary function of an endotracheal tube during anesthesia? → To maintain an open airway and provide ventilation
11. ST-segment analysis on an intraoperative ECG monitor is most useful for detecting: → Myocardial ischemia
12. A CAA witnesses a surgical error but is pressured by the surgeon to omit it from documentation. The CAA should: → Accurately document the event and report it through incident reporting channels
13. A CAA who self-discloses a personal struggle with substance abuse to their licensing board is demonstrating which professional virtue? → Integrity and accountability
14. When a patient lacks decision-making capacity and has no advance directive, who typically serves as the surrogate decision-maker? → The next of kin or legally authorized representative using substituted judgment
15. At which vertebral interspace is spinal anesthesia most commonly performed in adults to avoid injury to the spinal cord? → L2–L3 or L3–L4
16. Under the ethical principle of justice in healthcare, a CAA should: → Provide equitable care regardless of socioeconomic status or background
17. Which sign on nerve stimulator-guided peripheral nerve block indicates the needle is too close to the nerve and intraneuronal placement is likely? → Muscle twitch persisting at <0.2 mA (low threshold stimulation)
18. What is the primary cause of malignant hyperthermia? → Uncontrolled calcium release in muscle cells
19. A CAA discovers a medication vial drawn up by another provider is unlabeled. What is the correct action? → Discard the unlabeled syringe and draw up a new, properly labeled dose
20. A new regulation impacts physiology and pathophysiology in anesthesia procedures. What should a CAA professional do first? → Ensuring compliance with current regulatory requirements and standards
21. The purpose of a heat and moisture exchanger (HME) in the anesthesia breathing circuit is to: → Passively humidify and warm inspired gases
22. In the context of anesthesia risk management, what does the 'Swiss cheese model' describe? → Multiple layered defenses each with gaps; harm occurs when gaps align across all layers
23. Which intravenous anesthetic is commonly used for induction due to its rapid onset and short duration? → Propofol
24. A CAA is asked to perform a procedure they have not been trained to perform. The ethical and professional response is to: → Decline and communicate their limitation to the supervising physician
25. Which maneuver improves visualization of the vocal cords during laryngoscopy? → BURP maneuver
26. Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) used as cerebral oximetry during anesthesia measures: → Regional cerebral oxygen saturation (rSO2) noninvasively
27. The oxygen flush valve on an anesthesia machine delivers oxygen at approximately what flow rate? → 35–75 L/min
28. Which tool or methodology is most appropriate for analyzing anesthesia principles and techniques outcomes? → Maintaining professional boundaries while building collaborative relationships
29. When documenting anesthesia care, which principle should guide the CAA's written communication? → Entries should be timely, objective, accurate, and reflect the actual course of care
30. A CAA notices an anesthesiologist supervisor is impaired by alcohol before a scheduled procedure. The CAA's ethical duty is to: → Immediately remove the supervisor from patient care and report to administration