Bachelor of Science in Forensic Science (BSFS) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which type of glass fracture pattern indicates the direction of force applied?
- Concentric fractures around the impact point
- All of the above contribute to directionality analysis (Correct answer)
- Hackle marks on the glass edge
- Radial fractures extending outward from the impact
Correct answer: All of the above contribute to directionality analysis
Forensic glass analysis uses radial and concentric fracture patterns together with hackle marks and rib marks to determine the direction and sequence of impacts.
Question 2: MAC times in digital forensics refer to:
- Maximum Access Count limits on file retrieval
- Modified, Accessed, and Changed (or Created) timestamps associated with files (Correct answer)
- Media Access Control addresses stored in system logs
- Memory Allocation Code times for RAM forensics
Correct answer: Modified, Accessed, and Changed (or Created) timestamps associated with files
MAC timestamps record when a file was last modified, accessed, and when its metadata was changed, providing a chronological record of file activity on a system.
Question 3: A contact gunshot wound to the head typically produces which distinctive finding around the wound?
- A clean, round entrance without any residue
- No powder residue because it is consumed at close range
- Soot, stippling, and a muzzle contusion (stellate/star-shaped laceration) from gases entering the wound (Correct answer)
- Only an exit wound with no entrance characteristics
Correct answer: Soot, stippling, and a muzzle contusion (stellate/star-shaped laceration) from gases entering the wound
Contact wounds show blackening from soot, no stippling (since powder doesn't travel through air), and gas-driven stellate skin lacerations when fired against the skull.
Question 4: What is a 'questioned document' in forensic science?
- A court subpoena for lab records
- A classified government file
- A document written in a foreign language
- A document whose authenticity, authorship, or content is in dispute (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A document whose authenticity, authorship, or content is in dispute
A questioned document is any document whose origin, authorship, or content is disputed and submitted for forensic examination.
Question 5: In forensic firearms examination, what is a 'striation'?
- The caliber marking stamped on a cartridge case
- A serial number etched into the firearm frame
- The pattern of gunshot residue around a wound
- A microscopic scratch or groove left on a bullet by the barrel's rifling (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A microscopic scratch or groove left on a bullet by the barrel's rifling
Striations are unique microscopic scratches left by a gun barrel's rifling on a bullet as it passes through, allowing examiners to match bullets to specific firearms.
Question 6: What is the significance of 'rigor mortis' in determining time of death?
- It indicates the manner of death
- It reveals the victim's blood type
- It shows whether the body was moved after death
- It provides a general time window by the progression and resolution of muscle stiffening (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It provides a general time window by the progression and resolution of muscle stiffening
Rigor mortis begins a few hours after death, peaks around 12 hours, and resolves by 24–48 hours, helping estimate the postmortem interval.
Question 7: Which analytical technique is most commonly used in forensic labs to identify unknown substances by separating and detecting components in a sample?
- Infrared spectroscopy only
- Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) (Correct answer)
- Nuclear magnetic resonance only
- UV-Vis spectrophotometry only
Correct answer: Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS)
GC-MS is the gold standard for forensic substance identification because it combines separation power with definitive molecular identification.
Question 8: In forensic anthropology, the 'biological profile' of unidentified skeletal remains includes which four components?
- DNA type, blood type, fingerprints, and dentition
- Sex, age, ancestry, and stature (Correct answer)
- Occupation, health history, geographic origin, and date of death
- Name, height, weight, and cause of death
Correct answer: Sex, age, ancestry, and stature
Forensic anthropologists establish a biological profile by estimating sex from pelvic morphology, age from bone development, ancestry from skull morphology, and stature from long bone lengths.
Question 9: In arson investigation, which chemical class of accelerants is most commonly detected using GC-MS?
- Ketones
- Petroleum distillates (Correct answer)
- Alcohols
- Aldehydes
Correct answer: Petroleum distillates
Petroleum distillates such as gasoline, kerosene, and lighter fluid are the most frequently encountered accelerants in arson cases and are reliably detected by GC-MS.
Question 10: What does the term 'postmortem interval' (PMI) refer to in forensic pathology?
- The duration of a coroner's investigation
- The time between arrest and autopsy
- The elapsed time since a person died (Correct answer)
- The interval between cause and manner of death
Correct answer: The elapsed time since a person died
Postmortem interval is the estimated time that has elapsed since death, determined using biological and environmental indicators.
Question 11: The first step a digital forensic investigator should take when seizing a computer as evidence is to:
- Connect the drive to the internet to sync cloud data
- Open the computer and review files immediately
- Run antivirus software to clean malware
- Create a forensic bit-for-bit image of the storage media before any analysis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Create a forensic bit-for-bit image of the storage media before any analysis
Creating a forensic image preserves the original evidence in an unaltered state, allowing analysis to be performed on the copy without modifying the original.
Question 12: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used in forensic DNA analysis primarily because it:
- Amplifies small or degraded DNA samples into quantities sufficient for analysis (Correct answer)
- Stains DNA bands for gel electrophoresis
- Directly identifies the sequence of nucleotides without amplification
- Creates a physical cast of chromosomal structure
Correct answer: Amplifies small or degraded DNA samples into quantities sufficient for analysis
PCR exponentially replicates target DNA sequences, enabling analysis of trace or degraded biological evidence that would otherwise be insufficient for profiling.
Question 13: CODIS, the national DNA database used by forensic labs in the U.S., stands for:
- Criminal Offender DNA Identification System
- Centralized DNA Observation and Indexing System
- Comprehensive Offender Database and Identification System
- Combined DNA Index System (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Combined DNA Index System
CODIS is the FBI's national database that links DNA profiles from crime scenes with known offenders to assist in solving crimes across jurisdictions.
Question 14: The Scott test is a presumptive field test used specifically for identifying:
- Cocaine (Correct answer)
- Cannabis
- Methamphetamine
- Heroin
Correct answer: Cocaine
The Scott test uses cobalt thiocyanate reagent and turns blue in the presence of cocaine, serving as a presumptive field identification test.
Question 15: The presumptive test for semen that detects the enzyme acid phosphatase is known as:
- Brentamine Fast Blue test
- PSA ELISA test
- AP spot test (acid phosphatase test) (Correct answer)
- Luminol test
Correct answer: AP spot test (acid phosphatase test)
The acid phosphatase spot test detects high concentrations of AP secreted by the prostate gland in semen, producing a purple color as a presumptive result.
Question 16: File metadata in digital forensics can reveal which of the following?
- The actual content of encrypted files
- Creation, modification, and access timestamps, as well as file author and location (Correct answer)
- The specific user who physically typed a document
- Whether a file was physically deleted from a drive
Correct answer: Creation, modification, and access timestamps, as well as file author and location
Metadata embedded in files records important context such as when a file was created or modified, author name, GPS coordinates, and software version used.
Question 17: Which term describes the stiffening of muscles that occurs after death due to the depletion of ATP?
- Rigor mortis (Correct answer)
- Putrefaction
- Livor mortis
- Algor mortis
Correct answer: Rigor mortis
Rigor mortis begins 2–6 hours after death, peaks at 12 hours, and resolves by 24–48 hours as muscle proteins break down due to loss of ATP-driven cross-bridge cycling.
Question 18: What is the primary purpose of forensic odontology?
- Analyzing bite marks and identifying individuals through dental records (Correct answer)
- Estimating age from facial bone structure
- Performing autopsies on dental professionals
- Comparing DNA extracted from tooth enamel
Correct answer: Analyzing bite marks and identifying individuals through dental records
Forensic odontology uses dental records, bite mark analysis, and dental comparisons to identify deceased individuals or link suspects to crimes.
Question 19: The legal blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limit for driving in most U.S. states for adults is:
- 0.02%
- 0.08% (Correct answer)
- 0.10%
- 0.05%
Correct answer: 0.08%
The per se legal limit for DUI in all 50 U.S. states is 0.08% BAC for drivers aged 21 and older.
Question 20: Touch DNA refers to DNA recovered from:
- Saliva on cigarette butts only
- Skin cells deposited when a person handles or touches an object (Correct answer)
- Hair with attached follicles
- Blood left at a scene after cleaning
Correct answer: Skin cells deposited when a person handles or touches an object
When a person touches a surface, they deposit epithelial (skin) cells containing nuclear DNA, which can be collected and profiled even without visible biological fluid.
Question 21: The presumptive color test that turns purple/blue in the presence of opioids is known as the:
- Duquenois-Levine test
- Cobalt thiocyanate test
- Scott test
- Marquis test (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Marquis test
The Marquis reagent reacts with opioids to produce a characteristic purple-to-blue color, serving as a rapid field presumptive test.
Question 22: In cybercrime investigation, 'phishing' is defined as:
- Intercepting network traffic to eavesdrop on communications
- Fraudulent communications that impersonate legitimate entities to steal credentials or install malware (Correct answer)
- Hacking into a network using brute-force password attacks
- Physically stealing hardware to access sensitive data
Correct answer: Fraudulent communications that impersonate legitimate entities to steal credentials or install malware
Phishing uses deceptive emails, websites, or messages that mimic trusted sources to trick victims into revealing passwords, financial information, or downloading malware.
Question 23: Adipocere formation, a postmortem change, occurs when body fat converts to:
- A waxy, soap-like substance in moist, anaerobic environments (Correct answer)
- Crystalline calcium deposits over decades
- Dry, leathery tissue in hot, arid conditions
- Carbon dioxide and water in aerobic conditions
Correct answer: A waxy, soap-like substance in moist, anaerobic environments
Adipocere (grave wax) forms through saponification of body fat under moist, anaerobic conditions, preserving the body's shape and slowing decomposition.
Question 24: Which phenomenon describes a suspect's false belief that confessing is in their best interest due to police deception or psychological pressure?
- Coerced-compliant false confession (Correct answer)
- Internalized false confession
- Recanted confession
- Voluntary false confession
Correct answer: Coerced-compliant false confession
A coerced-compliant false confession occurs when suspects confess to escape an aversive interrogation while privately knowing they are innocent.
Question 25: Y-STR analysis is specifically used in sexual assault cases because it can:
- Date when sexual contact occurred
- Distinguish the male contributor's profile from a predominantly female victim sample (Correct answer)
- Identify the blood type of the male contributor
- Determine the exact number of sperm cells present
Correct answer: Distinguish the male contributor's profile from a predominantly female victim sample
Y-STRs target the male-specific Y chromosome, allowing the male contributor's profile to be recovered even from mixtures dominated by female DNA.
Question 26: What department at the crime lab is in charge of checking the body fluids and organs for the presence of drugs and poisons?
- toxicology (Correct answer)
- evidence collection
- toolmarks
- photography
Correct answer: toxicology
The toxicology department in a crime lab specializes in the identification and quantification of drugs, poisons, and other toxic substances in body fluids and tissues. Forensic toxicologists play a crucial role in determining the cause and manner of death, investigating drug-related crimes, and assessing impairment in cases like impaired driving.
Question 27: Which department of the contemporary crime lab is in charge of processing evidence using chemistry, physics, and geology?
- physical science (Correct answer)
- biology
- photography
- fingerprints
Correct answer: physical science
The physical science unit within a modern crime lab is responsible for examining non-biological evidence using principles from chemistry, physics, and geology. This includes analyzing trace evidence like paint, glass, soil, as well as drugs, explosives, and other materials to provide scientific insights relevant to criminal investigations.
Question 28: Algor mortis is the postmortem phenomenon used to estimate time of death based on:
- The degree of putrefactive odor produced
- The rate of muscle stiffening after death
- Chemical changes in the vitreous humor of the eye
- The cooling of the body after death until it equilibrates with ambient temperature (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The cooling of the body after death until it equilibrates with ambient temperature
The body cools approximately 1–1.5°C per hour under standard conditions; measuring core body temperature and comparing it to ambient temperature helps estimate postmortem interval.
Question 29: In STR analysis, 'allelic dropout' refers to:
- Failure to detect one or both alleles at a locus due to low or degraded DNA (Correct answer)
- An artifact produced during PCR amplification
- The presence of extra alleles from contamination
- Deletion of an STR locus from the CODIS database
Correct answer: Failure to detect one or both alleles at a locus due to low or degraded DNA
Allelic dropout occurs when a true allele is not amplified or detected, typically due to degraded template DNA or inhibitors, potentially causing a false exclusion.
Question 30: Postmortem redistribution of drugs is a concern in forensic toxicology because it can:
- Improve the accuracy of blood drug measurements
- Cause drug concentrations to increase or change after death, complicating interpretation (Correct answer)
- Only affect alcohol levels
- Always reduce drug concentrations to zero
Correct answer: Cause drug concentrations to increase or change after death, complicating interpretation
After death, drugs can migrate from organs with high concentrations into blood, making postmortem drug levels unreliable if not collected from the correct site promptly.
Question 31: In bloodstain pattern analysis, what does a 'satellite stain' indicate?
- Blood from a secondary victim
- Blood that traveled by wind
- A small droplet that broke away from a larger impact stain (Correct answer)
- A stain left by a weapon
Correct answer: A small droplet that broke away from a larger impact stain
Satellite stains are small secondary droplets that break off from a parent drop upon impact and land near the main stain.
Question 32: In digital forensics, 'carving' refers to:
- Recovering files from unallocated disk space based on file signatures, without relying on the file system (Correct answer)
- Parsing log files to identify user activity
- Physically extracting a hard drive from its casing
- Removing malware code from infected system files
Correct answer: Recovering files from unallocated disk space based on file signatures, without relying on the file system
File carving searches raw disk data for known file headers and footers (signatures) to reconstruct deleted or fragmented files that are no longer referenced by the file system.
Bachelor of Science in Forensic Science (BSFS)
The BSFS degree program trains students in the scientific analysis of physical evidence across all crime laboratory disciplines, including forensic biology, chemistry, digital forensics, pathology, and legal principles. Program assessments such as the Forensic Science Assessment Test (FSAT) evaluate competency across all core forensic domains.
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