BRPT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield BRPT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which neurotransmitter, produced by the lateral hypothalamus, is the primary promoter of wakefulness and is deficient in narcolepsy type 1? → Orexin (hypocretin)
2. What is the RECOMMENDED starting pressure for CPAP? → 4cm H20
3. To score a 30-second epoch as Stage N3, what percentage of the epoch must contain slow wave activity? → 20% or more
4. OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom) requires that Safety Data Sheets (SDS) be accessible to employees: → At all times during each work shift
5. The vertical position of the pens with the polysomnograph amplifiers turned off is referred to as: → Time axis
6. What is the typical duration of one complete NREM-REM sleep cycle in healthy adults? → 90–110 minutes
7. During the patient intake process, what is the technologist's primary responsibility regarding the informed consent form? → To verify the patient understands the procedure and to witness their signature.
8. What factors come into play when deciding to enter the patients room to correct artifacts? → All of the above
9. Which type of isolation precautions would be most appropriate for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis undergoing a sleep study? → Airborne precautions
10. Sawtooth waves seen during REM sleep are best described as: → 2–6 Hz triangular or notched waves maximal in central leads
11. In a standard polysomnography montage, the derivation 'C4-M1' refers to the electrical potential difference between which two points? → The C4 electrode and the left mastoid (M1) process.
12. Which sterilization method is preferred for heat-sensitive sleep lab equipment such as CPAP circuit tubing? → Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization
13. Respiratory inductance plethysmography (RIP) belt artifact is most commonly caused by: → Belt displacement or changed belt tension from patient repositioning
14. Obstructive sleep apnea (or OSA) is usually caused when → All of the above
15. Which level of disinfection is required for reusable PAP masks and headgear between patients? → High-level disinfection
16. ECG (cardiogenic) artifact in EEG channels is identified by: → Regular sharp deflections that align with QRS complexes on the ECG channel
17. Which procedural adaptation is most critical for ensuring a successful PSG on a 5-year-old child? → Allowing a parent or caregiver to stay overnight in the room.
18. Double-referencing (A1+A2) may be useful for? → Reduce EKG artifact in EEG and EOG Channels
19. What is the purpose of the low frequency filter? → Eliminating undesired slow frequencies
20. The glymphatic system, active primarily during sleep, functions to: → Clear adenosine and metabolic waste from brain tissue
21. During EOG calibrations, both the LOC and ROC channels deflect downward simultaneously when the patient looks up. What does this indicate? → A possible problem with the reference electrode (M1/M2).
22. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which serves as the master circadian pacemaker, is located in which brain structure? → Hypothalamus
23. After resolving obstructive apneas with EPAP, a patient on BiLevel PAP continues to have hypopneas. What is the correct action? → Increase the IPAP.
24. During intake, a patient reports they started taking an over-the-counter sleep aid two nights ago. What is the technologist's most important action? → Document the medication and notify the medical director or ordering physician.
25. What is a crucial piece of pre-study education for a patient regarding their activities on the day of the sleep study? → Avoid all caffeine after 12:00 PM (noon).
26. During a split-night CPAP titration, CPAP pressurized airflow most directly causes artifact on which channels? → Thermistor, nasal pressure, and respiratory effort channels
27. Glutaraldehyde (e.g., Cidex) used for high-level disinfection of sleep study equipment is considered hazardous because it: → Can cause respiratory irritation, skin sensitization, and mucous membrane damage
28. Adaptive Servo-Ventilation (ASV) is the recommended treatment for which of the following conditions? → Complex sleep apnea and Cheyne-Stokes Respiration.
29. Which class of fire extinguisher is appropriate for an electrical fire that might occur near sleep lab recording equipment? → Class C
30. The ventrolateral preoptic area (VLPO) promotes sleep onset by: → Releasing GABA and galanin to inhibit wake-promoting nuclei