BPTC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield BPTC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

  1. Under the BSB Handbook, when is a barrister permitted to conduct litigation? Only when they hold an appropriate authorisation (litigation extension) from the BSB
  2. When drafting a Defence under the CPR, what must the defendant do in relation to each allegation in the Particulars of Claim? Admit, deny, or state they are unable to admit or deny each allegation, giving reasons
  3. Which court has jurisdiction to try indictable-only offences in England and Wales? Crown Court
  4. A barrister's closing speech in a Crown Court trial should primarily: Draw together the evidence and apply it to the legal directions the judge will give
  5. Under the Sentencing Act 2020, what is the maximum discount on sentence for a guilty plea entered at the earliest opportunity? One-third (33%)
  6. Which of the following best describes 'integrative' negotiation? Parties identify shared and complementary interests to create mutually beneficial outcomes
  7. Under s.34 Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, adverse inference may be drawn when: The defendant fails to mention when questioned a fact later relied on in their defence
  8. In a criminal trial at the Crown Court, who typically delivers the opening speech? The prosecution barrister
  9. Which part of a statement of case sets out the facts relied on by the claimant? The particulars of claim
  10. When drafting an indictment, each count must contain: A statement of the offence and particulars of the offence disclosing essential facts
  11. In negotiation, 'salami slicing' refers to which behaviour? Extracting a series of small additional concessions after the main deal appears concluded
  12. Oral evidence given in court is admissible only if the witness takes: An oath or affirms that they will tell the truth
  13. Which of the following should a well-drafted opinion always address? Liability, quantum, procedural steps required, and a clear recommendation as to next steps
  14. Which advocacy skill is most important when making a bail application? Identifying and addressing the specific grounds the court is concerned about
  15. Under the Legal Services Act 2007, which of the following is a 'reserved legal activity' that only authorised persons may carry out? The exercise of a right of audience before a court
  16. Under CPR Part 36, a claimant's Part 36 offer must: Be open for at least 21 days and comply with the formal requirements of CPR r.36.5
  17. A criminal information (charge sheet) must identify: The defendant, the date and place of the alleged offence, and the specific offence charged
  18. What does 're-examination' allow the advocate to do? Clarify matters arising from cross-examination only
  19. Which of the following is a proper ground for objecting to a question in cross-examination? The question calls for inadmissible hearsay
  20. Which negotiation tactic involves a party claiming they must refer any decision to an absent authority before agreeing? The Higher Authority tactic
  21. Under CPR Part 35, an expert witness's overriding duty is to: The court, to provide independent and impartial assistance
  22. At the BPTC, when (if ever) should a negotiator reveal their client's bottom line to the opposing party? Only if genuinely necessary to achieve settlement, and then only strategically
  23. Which of the following is NOT a ground on which legal professional privilege can be lost? The client dies
  24. A defendant charged with an indictable-only offence first appears in which court? Magistrates' Court
  25. Under the Civil Procedure Rules, what is the standard of proof in civil proceedings? Balance of probabilities
  26. Which of the following is a community sentence requirement under the Sentencing Act 2020? Unpaid work requirement
  27. Which track is appropriate for a claim worth between £10,001 and £25,000? Fast track
  28. When examining a witness in chief, leading questions are generally: Prohibited on disputed matters
  29. What is the purpose of a 'bad character' application under the Criminal Justice Act 2003? To admit evidence of a defendant's or witness's previous misconduct
  30. Which section of PACE 1984 governs the admissibility of confessions? Section 76
Turn these facts into recall: