BPTC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield BPTC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

  1. Under the BSB Handbook, when is a barrister permitted to conduct litigation? → Only when they hold an appropriate authorisation (litigation extension) from the BSB
  2. When drafting a Defence under the CPR, what must the defendant do in relation to each allegation in the Particulars of Claim? → Admit, deny, or state they are unable to admit or deny each allegation, giving reasons
  3. Which court has jurisdiction to try indictable-only offences in England and Wales? → Crown Court
  4. A barrister's closing speech in a Crown Court trial should primarily: → Draw together the evidence and apply it to the legal directions the judge will give
  5. Under the Sentencing Act 2020, what is the maximum discount on sentence for a guilty plea entered at the earliest opportunity? → One-third (33%)
  6. Which of the following best describes 'integrative' negotiation? → Parties identify shared and complementary interests to create mutually beneficial outcomes
  7. Under s.34 Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, adverse inference may be drawn when: → The defendant fails to mention when questioned a fact later relied on in their defence
  8. In a criminal trial at the Crown Court, who typically delivers the opening speech? → The prosecution barrister
  9. Which part of a statement of case sets out the facts relied on by the claimant? → The particulars of claim
  10. When drafting an indictment, each count must contain: → A statement of the offence and particulars of the offence disclosing essential facts
  11. In negotiation, 'salami slicing' refers to which behaviour? → Extracting a series of small additional concessions after the main deal appears concluded
  12. Oral evidence given in court is admissible only if the witness takes: → An oath or affirms that they will tell the truth
  13. Which of the following should a well-drafted opinion always address? → Liability, quantum, procedural steps required, and a clear recommendation as to next steps
  14. Which advocacy skill is most important when making a bail application? → Identifying and addressing the specific grounds the court is concerned about
  15. Under the Legal Services Act 2007, which of the following is a 'reserved legal activity' that only authorised persons may carry out? → The exercise of a right of audience before a court
  16. Under CPR Part 36, a claimant's Part 36 offer must: → Be open for at least 21 days and comply with the formal requirements of CPR r.36.5
  17. A criminal information (charge sheet) must identify: → The defendant, the date and place of the alleged offence, and the specific offence charged
  18. What does 're-examination' allow the advocate to do? → Clarify matters arising from cross-examination only
  19. Which of the following is a proper ground for objecting to a question in cross-examination? → The question calls for inadmissible hearsay
  20. Which negotiation tactic involves a party claiming they must refer any decision to an absent authority before agreeing? → The Higher Authority tactic
  21. Under CPR Part 35, an expert witness's overriding duty is to: → The court, to provide independent and impartial assistance
  22. At the BPTC, when (if ever) should a negotiator reveal their client's bottom line to the opposing party? → Only if genuinely necessary to achieve settlement, and then only strategically
  23. Which of the following is NOT a ground on which legal professional privilege can be lost? → The client dies
  24. A defendant charged with an indictable-only offence first appears in which court? → Magistrates' Court
  25. Under the Civil Procedure Rules, what is the standard of proof in civil proceedings? → Balance of probabilities
  26. Which of the following is a community sentence requirement under the Sentencing Act 2020? → Unpaid work requirement
  27. Which track is appropriate for a claim worth between £10,001 and £25,000? → Fast track
  28. When examining a witness in chief, leading questions are generally: → Prohibited on disputed matters
  29. What is the purpose of a 'bad character' application under the Criminal Justice Act 2003? → To admit evidence of a defendant's or witness's previous misconduct
  30. Which section of PACE 1984 governs the admissibility of confessions? → Section 76
Turn these facts into recall:
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