Board Certified Ophthalmologist Retina and Vitreous Diseases Questions and Answers Flashcards
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A 62-year-old patient presents with sudden painless vision loss and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
A cherry-red spot with surrounding retinal whitening is the classic fundoscopic finding in central retinal artery occlusion due to ischemia of the inner retina.
Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for detecting choroidal neovascularization in age-related macular degeneration?
Answer: Fluorescein angiography
Fluorescein angiography remains the gold standard for identifying and classifying choroidal neovascular membranes by demonstrating dye leakage patterns.
A patient with proliferative diabetic retinopathy develops tractional retinal detachment involving the macula. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Pars plana vitrectomy
Tractional retinal detachment involving the macula requires pars plana vitrectomy to relieve traction and reattach the retina to preserve central vision.
What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults in the United States?
Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the leading cause of vitreous hemorrhage in US adults due to bleeding from fragile neovascular vessels.
In Eales disease, what is the primary pathologic finding affecting the retinal vasculature?
Answer: Peripheral retinal vasculitis with nonperfusion
Eales disease is characterized by idiopathic peripheral retinal vasculitis leading to nonperfusion, neovascularization, and recurrent vitreous hemorrhage.
Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with Best vitelliform macular dystrophy?
Answer: BEST1 (bestrophin-1)
Best vitelliform macular dystrophy is caused by mutations in the BEST1 gene encoding bestrophin-1, a chloride channel protein in the retinal pigment epithelium.