Board Certified Ophthalmologist Neuro-Ophthalmology Questions and Answers Flashcards
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A 45-year-old patient presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals a swollen optic disc with peripapillary hemorrhages. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy presents with sudden painless vision loss, RAPD, and a swollen disc with peripapillary hemorrhages, most commonly in patients over 40.
Which cranial nerve palsy is most commonly associated with microvascular ischemia in diabetic patients?
Answer: Sixth nerve palsy
Sixth cranial nerve palsy is the most common isolated cranial nerve palsy caused by microvascular ischemia, frequently seen in diabetic patients.
A patient with multiple sclerosis develops bilateral sequential optic neuritis. MRI of the brain shows periventricular white matter lesions. What visual field defect is most characteristic of optic neuritis?
Answer: Central scotoma
Central scotoma is the most common visual field defect in optic neuritis, resulting from inflammation of the central fibers of the optic nerve.
A 30-year-old woman presents with transient visual obscurations, bilateral disc edema, and an enlarged blind spot on perimetry. Her BMI is 38. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study?
Answer: MRI brain with MR venography
MRI with MR venography is essential to rule out cerebral venous sinus thrombosis before diagnosing idiopathic intracranial hypertension in a patient with papilledema.
A patient presents with a complete third nerve palsy including pupil involvement after minor head trauma. CT angiography reveals a 7 mm aneurysm. What is the most likely location of this aneurysm?
Answer: Posterior communicating artery
Posterior communicating artery aneurysms are the most common cause of a pupil-involving third nerve palsy due to compression of the parasympathetic fibers on the surface of the nerve.
What is the hallmark visual field defect seen in a patient with a lesion at the optic chiasm caused by a pituitary adenoma?
Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Bitemporal hemianopia results from compression of the crossing nasal retinal fibers at the optic chiasm, classically caused by pituitary adenomas growing superiorly.