Pharmacology & Medication Management Flashcards
7 cards from real BHP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Pharmacology & Medication Management flashcards as text
A client on carbamazepine for bipolar disorder starts a new antibiotic. The BHP should be aware that carbamazepine:
Answer: Is a potent CYP450 inducer that can reduce other drugs' effectiveness
Carbamazepine induces CYP3A4 and other enzymes, potentially lowering plasma levels of co-administered drugs including some antibiotics and contraceptives.
Which of the following is an appropriate PRN (as-needed) medication strategy for acute agitation in a behavioral health setting?
Answer: Administering a short-acting benzodiazepine or antipsychotic per order
Short-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam) or antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol) are appropriate PRN options for acute agitation when ordered by a prescriber.
A client recently started on fluoxetine says they feel worse and more anxious after 1 week. The BHP should:
Answer: Explain that SSRIs often cause transient anxiety initially and improvement typically takes 4–6 weeks
Initial anxiety and activation are common with SSRIs in the first 1–2 weeks; therapeutic antidepressant effects typically emerge at 4–6 weeks.
Which medication requires a REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) program due to risk of severe birth defects?
Answer: Isotretinoin analogs and thalidomide-class drugs used in psychiatric conditions
Medications such as thalidomide analogs require strict REMS programs due to severe teratogenicity, mandating pregnancy testing and contraception.
A client taking quetiapine for bipolar disorder reports excessive daytime sedation. The BHP should first:
Answer: Document the complaint and discuss with the prescriber about timing or dose adjustment
Documenting the side effect and collaborating with the prescriber about adjusting administration timing or dosage is the appropriate first step.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of buspirone for anxiety?
Answer: It is a partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors with no sedation or dependence risk
Buspirone acts as a partial agonist at serotonin 5-HT1A receptors, providing anxiolytic effects without the sedation, tolerance, or dependence of benzodiazepines.
A client prescribed long-acting injectable aripiprazole (Abilify Maintena) asks why they cannot just take pills. The most relevant clinical reason is:
Answer: LAIs improve medication adherence by eliminating daily dosing and covert non-adherence
Long-acting injectables are prescribed primarily to address adherence challenges, eliminating the need for daily oral dosing and making non-adherence immediately detectable.