DSST Criminal Justice Examination — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What does 'recidivism' mean in corrections?

First-time offending
Re-offending after previous conviction or release (Correct answer)
Successful reintegration
Parole completion

Correct answer: Re-offending after previous conviction or release

Recidivism refers to the tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend or return to criminal behavior after release.

Question 2: Which era of U.S. policing (roughly 1930–1980) is characterized by reliance on patrol cars, 911 systems, and a reactive, professional crime-fighting model?

Intelligence-led era
Community era
Reform era (Correct answer)
Political era

Correct answer: Reform era

The Reform (or Professional) era emphasized motorized patrol, rapid response, and scientific crime fighting as police distanced themselves from political influence.

Question 3: What is the primary function of a presentence investigation report (PSI)?

To advise the jury
To set bail
To provide judges with background information for sentencing (Correct answer)
To determine guilt or innocence

Correct answer: To provide judges with background information for sentencing

A PSI report compiles an offender's criminal history, background, and risk factors to assist the judge in making an informed sentencing decision.

Question 4: Which forensic discipline analyzes handwriting to determine authorship of documents?

Forensic odontology
Digital forensics
Questioned document examination (Correct answer)
Forensic anthropology

Correct answer: Questioned document examination

Questioned document examination involves the scientific analysis of handwriting, signatures, typewriting, and other document features to determine authenticity or authorship.

Question 5: Which sentencing approach bases the prison term on the offender's likelihood of future crime?

Retributive sentencing
Predictive/risk-based sentencing (Correct answer)
Mandatory minimum sentencing
Incapacitative sentencing

Correct answer: Predictive/risk-based sentencing

Risk-based or predictive sentencing uses actuarial tools to assess the offender's future dangerousness and tailor sentences accordingly.

Question 6: What is the juvenile equivalent of a criminal conviction called?

Indictment
Conviction
Adjudication of delinquency (Correct answer)
Finding of guilt

Correct answer: Adjudication of delinquency

In juvenile court, a finding that the juvenile committed the alleged offense is called an adjudication of delinquency rather than a conviction.

Question 7: Electronic monitoring is advantageous as a kind of punishment because of the following.

Leads to greater communication between offender and victim
Encourages offenders to contribute to society positively
Reduces cost to state and/or federal penal agencies (Correct answer)
Increases direct supervision by corrections officers

Correct answer: Reduces cost to state and/or federal penal agencies

Electronic monitoring is less expensive than incarceration in a county jail, a state prison, or a federal prison. EM saves federal agencies $920 on average while saving local governments $580 each participant. (source: J. Roman, Urban Institute, Washington, DC, 2012).

Question 8: Which federal law, passed in 1994, required law enforcement agencies receiving certain federal funds to allow civilian review of police department records?

The Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act
The Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act
The PATRIOT Act
The Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act

The Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 was the largest crime bill in U.S. history and included provisions promoting community policing and department accountability.

Question 9: What is forensic toxicology primarily concerned with?

Detecting and measuring drugs, poisons, and chemicals in biological samples (Correct answer)
Reconstructing crime scenes
Analyzing fingerprints
Examining digital devices

Correct answer: Detecting and measuring drugs, poisons, and chemicals in biological samples

Forensic toxicology involves the detection and quantification of drugs, alcohol, poisons, and other chemicals in biological specimens for legal purposes.

Question 10: What does 'postmortem lividity' (livor mortis) indicate in a death investigation?

The position of the body after death based on blood pooling (Correct answer)
The cause of death
Time of injury
The victim's blood type

Correct answer: The position of the body after death based on blood pooling

Livor mortis is the purplish discoloration of the skin caused by the settling of blood after death, indicating the position in which the body came to rest.

Question 11: What type of evidence is a witness's verbal account of what they observed?

Physical evidence
Testimonial evidence (Correct answer)
Digital evidence
Documentary evidence

Correct answer: Testimonial evidence

Testimonial evidence is evidence given by a witness under oath describing what they personally saw, heard, or experienced.

Question 12: What is 'mens rea' in criminal law?

The guilty mind or criminal intent (Correct answer)
The victim's testimony
The physical act of a crime
The chain of custody

Correct answer: The guilty mind or criminal intent

Mens rea refers to the mental element or criminal intent required for most crimes to be proven.

Question 13: The exclusionary rule, established in Mapp v. Ohio (1961), holds that evidence obtained through an illegal search and seizure is:

Admissible if corroborated by other evidence
Admissible at the judge's discretion
Inadmissible in a court of law (Correct answer)
Admissible only in federal courts

Correct answer: Inadmissible in a court of law

The exclusionary rule bars evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment from being used in criminal proceedings to deter police misconduct.

Question 14: What does the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) require?

Mandatory adult prosecution for violent juveniles
Mandatory minimum sentences for juveniles
Abolition of the juvenile death penalty
Deinstitutionalization of status offenders and sight/sound separation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deinstitutionalization of status offenders and sight/sound separation

The JJDPA requires that status offenders not be detained in secure facilities and that juveniles be separated from adult inmates by sight and sound.

Question 15: A criminal justice viewpoint that places a strong emphasis on individual rights throughout the whole justice system's processing

Crime control model
Public order advocate
Due process model (Correct answer)
Individual rights advocate

Correct answer: Due process model

The criminal justice perspective that emphasizes individual rights at all stages of the justice system processing is known as the due process model. The due process model is based on the principle that individuals accused of crimes should be afforded certain procedural safeguards and protections to ensure fairness and protect their rights.

Question 16: Which concept refers to the phenomenon where police officers develop a cynical, suspicious, and secretive worldview as a result of occupational socialization?

Role conflict
The police personality (Correct answer)
Differential association
Cognitive dissonance

Correct answer: The police personality

The 'police personality' refers to a set of traits — including cynicism, authoritarianism, and solidarity — believed to develop through police socialization and the demands of the job.

Question 17: What is the purpose of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)?

To classify terrorist organizations
To oversee counterintelligence operations
To provide a standardized framework for all government levels to coordinate emergency response (Correct answer)
To manage immigration

Correct answer: To provide a standardized framework for all government levels to coordinate emergency response

NIMS provides a consistent nationwide framework enabling government agencies at all levels, the private sector, and NGOs to work together in managing emergencies and disasters.

Question 18: The classical theory of criminal justice's three primary components are

causation, deterrence, and rationality of punishment
probability, severity, and frequency of punishment
swiftness, severity, and certainty of punishment (Correct answer)
apprehension plus probability and swiftness of punishment

Correct answer: swiftness, severity, and certainty of punishment

The classical theory of criminal justice does indeed emphasize the elements of severity and certainty of punishment, but it does not specifically include swiftness as one of its main elements.

Question 19: Which factor is most associated with high rates of prison recidivism?

Lack of education and employment opportunities post-release (Correct answer)
Geographic location
Length of original sentence
Race of the offender

Correct answer: Lack of education and employment opportunities post-release

Research consistently shows that lack of education, job skills, and employment opportunities after release is strongly linked to recidivism.

Question 20: What was the basis for justice in colonial America?

Common law
Individual judgement of local law enforcement
Both individual judgement of local law enforcement and common law (Correct answer)
Neither individual judgement of local law enforcement nor common law

Correct answer: Both individual judgement of local law enforcement and common law

Common law, which was founded on the English and French legal systems of the time and applied to the existing situation, served as the foundation for early justice. The fate of alleged criminals was left up to local law enforcement outside of this shambolic system of justice.

Question 21: What is parole?

Conditional release from prison before the full sentence is served (Correct answer)
Release after completing a full sentence
A sentence served in the community from the start
Acquittal after appeal

Correct answer: Conditional release from prison before the full sentence is served

Parole is the supervised early release of a prisoner who has served part of their sentence, subject to conditions.

Question 22: Which doctrine allows officers to seize evidence in plain view without a warrant?

Exigent circumstances
Plain view doctrine (Correct answer)
Inevitable discovery
Good faith exception

Correct answer: Plain view doctrine

The plain view doctrine permits officers to seize evidence of a crime that is openly visible without needing a warrant.

Question 23: What does 'restorative justice conferencing' involve in the juvenile system?

A facilitated meeting between the juvenile offender, victim, and community members (Correct answer)
A review by a parole board
A competency evaluation
A judge-only sentencing hearing

Correct answer: A facilitated meeting between the juvenile offender, victim, and community members

Restorative justice conferencing brings together the offender, victim, and community to collaboratively determine how the offender can make amends for the harm caused.

Question 24: At what age does the juvenile justice system typically no longer have jurisdiction in most U.S. states?

16
18 (Correct answer)
21
17

Correct answer: 18

In most U.S. states, the juvenile justice system's jurisdiction ends at age 18, after which individuals are processed in adult courts.

Question 25: An official procedure used by law enforcement or correctional administration to document an entry into detention following an arrest and to identify the subject, the location, the time, the nature of the arrest, and the arresting authority

Indictment
Bail
Arraignment
Booking (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Booking

Booking is the law enforcement or correctional administrative process that officially records an entry into detention after arrest. It involves documenting essential information about the individual, the arrest, and the circumstances surrounding it. This includes identifying the person through personal details such as name, date of birth, and physical description. The place, time, reason for the arrest, and the arresting authority are also recorded during the booking process.

Question 26: What is the primary use of blood spatter analysis in criminal investigations?

To establish the victim's identity
To reconstruct the sequence of events and position of individuals during a violent crime (Correct answer)
To identify the murder weapon's manufacturer
To determine the victim's blood type

Correct answer: To reconstruct the sequence of events and position of individuals during a violent crime

Blood spatter analysis examines the size, shape, and distribution of bloodstains to reconstruct the events of a violent crime, including the position and movement of victims and assailants.

Question 27: The 1966 Supreme Court case Miranda v. Arizona requires police to inform suspects of which of the following?

Their right to bail
Their right to confront witnesses
Their right to a speedy trial
Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney

Miranda warnings inform suspects of their Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination and Sixth Amendment right to counsel before custodial interrogation.

Question 28: Which sentencing model limits judicial discretion by setting fixed prison terms?

Restorative sentencing
Rehabilitative sentencing
Indeterminate sentencing
Determinate sentencing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Determinate sentencing

Determinate sentencing sets fixed prison terms established by law, reducing judicial discretion in sentencing decisions.

Question 29: What legal standard must police meet to arrest a suspect?

Preponderance of evidence
Beyond a reasonable doubt
Reasonable suspicion
Probable cause (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Probable cause

Probable cause, meaning a reasonable belief that a person has committed a crime, is required for a lawful arrest.

Question 30: The following are all benefits of probation and parole versus incarceration. EXCEPT

increased public safety (Correct answer)
lower cost
increased opportunity for restitution
increased opportunity for rehabilitation

Correct answer: increased public safety

The advantages of probation and parole over imprisonment include several factors, excluding the increased public safety aspect.

Question 31: Which Supreme Court case established the 'objective reasonableness' standard for evaluating whether a police officer's use of force was constitutional?

Tennessee v. Garner (1985)
Hudson v. Michigan (2006)
Graham v. Connor (1989) (Correct answer)
Atwater v. City of Lago Vista (2001)

Correct answer: Graham v. Connor (1989)

Graham v. Connor (1989) held that claims of excessive force must be analyzed under the Fourth Amendment's objective reasonableness standard from the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene.

DSST Criminal Justice Examination

The DSST Criminal Justice exam assesses college-level knowledge of the criminal justice system, equivalent to an introductory undergraduate course covering criminal behavior, law enforcement, courts, and corrections.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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