BCEN Medical Emergencies and Conditions 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient presents with chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
- Left anterior descending artery
- Left circumflex artery
- Right coronary artery (Correct answer)
- Left main coronary artery
Correct answer: Right coronary artery
Inferior STEMI (ST elevation in II, III, aVF) is typically caused by right coronary artery occlusion, which supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle.
Question 2: A patient with suspected opioid overdose has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/min and pinpoint pupils. What is the correct initial naloxone dose?
- 0.1 mg IV titrated slowly
- 0.4 mg IV/IM, repeat every 2-3 minutes as needed (Correct answer)
- 2 mg IV given as a single bolus
- 0.01 mg/kg IV for weight-based dosing only
Correct answer: 0.4 mg IV/IM, repeat every 2-3 minutes as needed
Standard initial naloxone dosing is 0.4 mg IV/IM, titrated to adequate respirations, with repeat doses every 2-3 minutes if needed.
Question 3: Which finding is most consistent with cardiac tamponade?
- Wide pulse pressure with bounding pulses
- Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, jugular venous distension (Correct answer)
- Unilateral absence of breath sounds
- Tracheal deviation away from affected side
Correct answer: Beck's triad: hypotension, muffled heart sounds, jugular venous distension
Beck's triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD) classically describes cardiac tamponade from pericardial fluid compression.
Question 4: A patient develops urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension 10 minutes after receiving IV penicillin. What is the FIRST drug to administer?
- Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
- Methylprednisolone 125 mg IV
- Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM (1:1000) (Correct answer)
- Albuterol via nebulizer
Correct answer: Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM (1:1000)
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis; it reverses bronchospasm, vasodilation, and prevents mast cell degranulation.
Question 5: A patient presents with fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a petechial rash. Which intervention is most time-critical?
- Obtain lumbar puncture before any treatment
- Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately (Correct answer)
- Order CT head before proceeding
- Obtain blood cultures and wait for results before antibiotics
Correct answer: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately
Bacterial meningitis with purpuric rash (suggesting meningococcemia) requires immediate antibiotics; delay increases mortality even by minutes.
Question 6: Which lab finding is most indicative of acute hepatic failure in the emergency setting?
- ALT 200 IU/L with normal bilirubin
- Elevated ammonia with coagulopathy (INR > 1.5) and encephalopathy (Correct answer)
- Total bilirubin 4.0 mg/dL with pruritus
- Alkaline phosphatase three times upper normal limit
Correct answer: Elevated ammonia with coagulopathy (INR > 1.5) and encephalopathy
Acute hepatic failure is defined by coagulopathy and encephalopathy in the absence of pre-existing liver disease, with hyperammonemia contributing to mental status changes.
Question 7: A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with blood glucose of 480 mg/dL, pH 7.21, bicarbonate 11 mEq/L, and fruity breath. Which is the most important initial intervention?
- Administer IV sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis
- Start insulin drip immediately without fluid resuscitation
- Initiate aggressive IV fluid resuscitation with 0.9% NS (Correct answer)
- Give subcutaneous insulin and observe for 2 hours
Correct answer: Initiate aggressive IV fluid resuscitation with 0.9% NS
Fluid resuscitation is the first priority in DKA to restore intravascular volume before insulin is started, as insulin without fluids can cause dangerous hypokalemia and cardiovascular collapse.
A patient presents with chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST-elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?