BCEN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield BCEN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient with a femur fracture develops sudden onset chest pain, tachycardia, and hypoxia 48 hours after admission. The most likely diagnosis is: → Fat embolism syndrome
2. HELLP syndrome is characterized by which triad of findings? → Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets
3. Which study approach is most effective for Toxicology material? → Active recall with practice questions
4. A patient with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning has a pulse oximetry reading of 99%. The nurse should recognize this as: → Falsely elevated because SpO2 cannot distinguish oxyhemoglobin from carboxyhemoglobin
5. A patient presents with fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and diaphoresis after starting haloperidol 3 days ago. What syndrome does this represent? → Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
6. A patient with a foreign body airway obstruction is unconscious after failed back blows. What is the next step? → Perform abdominal thrusts in supine position and visualize airway
7. A patient presents with ascending weakness, areflexia, and a history of eating home-canned vegetables. Which toxin is most likely responsible? → Botulinum toxin
8. A patient on warfarin presents with INR of 9.2 and active GI bleeding. Which reversal agent is most appropriate? → 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC) plus Vitamin K
9. When should you change an answer on a test? → Only when you have a clear reason the new answer is better
10. A patient presents after methanol ingestion. Which finding indicates the most serious complication? → Visual disturbances and blurred vision
11. Which stroke syndrome presents with ipsilateral facial weakness and contralateral body weakness? → Middle cerebral artery stroke
12. Under the National Incident Management System (NIMS), the concept of 'unity of command' means: → Each person reports to only one designated supervisor
13. What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections? → Proper hand hygiene
14. Which ECG change is the MOST sensitive indicator of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity? → QRS duration greater than 100 ms
15. A patient seizing for more than 5 minutes is considered to have status epilepticus. What is the first-line IV treatment? → Lorazepam
16. A nurse receives an order that they believe is inappropriate for the patient. What is the FIRST action? → Clarify the order with the prescribing provider directly
17. A patient is admitted with a serum potassium of 6.8 mEq/L and peaked T waves on ECG. Which intervention should be performed FIRST? → Administer calcium gluconate IV
18. Which study approach is most effective for Disaster Preparedness material? → Active recall with practice questions
19. Which finding is most indicative of a tension pneumothorax in a trauma patient? → Tracheal deviation away from the affected side with absent breath sounds
20. Which statement best describes the purpose of the triage acuity level in the ESI system? → It predicts the number of resources the patient will need and their acuity level
21. A patient presents after ingesting a large amount of diphenhydramine. Which finding would be MOST unexpected in this toxicity? → Miosis
22. Which lab finding is most indicative of acute hepatic failure in the emergency setting? → Elevated ammonia with coagulopathy (INR > 1.5) and encephalopathy
23. A patient presents with sudden onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' Which condition must be ruled out first? → Subarachnoid hemorrhage
24. A pregnant patient at 34 weeks develops sudden severe chest pain and dyspnea following a 6-hour car ride. Which condition should the nurse suspect? → Pulmonary embolism
25. What are standard precautions in healthcare? → Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
26. A trauma nurse is assessing an unresponsive patient with a suspected spinal cord injury at C5. Which respiratory pattern is expected? → Diaphragmatic breathing with intercostal paralysis
27. Which cervical spine clearance criterion allows clinical clearance without imaging in a low-risk alert trauma patient? → NEXUS criteria
28. A patient arrives after a suspected cyanide poisoning in an industrial fire. Which finding MOST suggests cyanide toxicity rather than carbon monoxide poisoning? → Metabolic acidosis with elevated lactate despite high-flow oxygen
29. A patient with ischemic stroke arrives within 2 hours of symptom onset. What is the first-line pharmacological intervention if eligible? → IV alteplase (tPA)
30. A patient presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and absent breath sounds on the left. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Pneumothorax