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Anesthesia Complications & Management Flashcards

7 cards from real BCA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient develops sudden hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria 10 minutes after antibiotic administration. What is the first-line treatment?

    Answer: IV epinephrine 0.1–0.5 mg

    Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its alpha and beta adrenergic effects that counteract vasodilation, bronchospasm, and mast cell mediator release.

  2. Which finding is most characteristic of malignant hyperthermia compared to other causes of intraoperative hyperthermia?

    Answer: Rising end-tidal CO2 despite increased minute ventilation

    Rapidly rising end-tidal CO2 that cannot be controlled by increasing ventilation is the earliest and most sensitive sign of malignant hyperthermia, reflecting massively increased skeletal muscle metabolism.

  3. A patient on rocuronium has incomplete reversal with neostigmine. Train-of-four shows 2 twitches. What is the best next step?

    Answer: Administer sugammadex 16 mg/kg

    Sugammadex 16 mg/kg is indicated for immediate reversal of profound neuromuscular blockade (1–2 twitches on TOF) caused by rocuronium or vecuronium.

  4. During spinal anesthesia, a patient complains of difficulty breathing and becomes unresponsive. Blood pressure is 60/40. This presentation is most consistent with:

    Answer: Total spinal anesthesia

    Total spinal anesthesia results from intrathecal spread of local anesthetic to cervical and brainstem levels, causing hypotension, respiratory paralysis, and loss of consciousness.

  5. A patient develops ST-segment depression and new regional wall motion abnormalities intraoperatively. After confirming adequate oxygenation, what is the most appropriate initial intervention?

    Answer: Correct hemodynamic abnormalities (BP, HR)

    Correcting hemodynamic derangements (optimizing oxygen supply-demand balance by addressing hypotension, tachycardia, or anemia) is the first priority in managing intraoperative myocardial ischemia.

  6. Which mechanism best explains post-dural puncture headache (PDPH)?

    Answer: CSF leakage causing intracranial hypotension and meningeal traction

    PDPH results from CSF leakage through the dural defect causing intracranial hypotension, which leads to downward traction on pain-sensitive intracranial structures when upright.

  7. A patient with a full stomach requires emergency intubation. Which sequence best minimizes aspiration risk?

    Answer: Rapid sequence induction with cricoid pressure

    Rapid sequence induction (RSI) with cricoid pressure minimizes the time between loss of protective airway reflexes and tracheal intubation, reducing aspiration risk in patients with full stomachs.