BCA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield BCA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which factor most increases the risk of persistent postsurgical pain (chronic pain after surgery)? → Preoperative anxiety and pain catastrophizing
2. Intraoperative EEG burst suppression is MOST commonly targeted during: → Carotid endarterectomy with cerebral protection
3. Which tool assesses patient functional status? → ASA classification
4. Which hemodynamic change is most expected during the induction of neuraxial anesthesia at the T4 level in an otherwise healthy adult? → Hypotension and bradycardia
5. What lab test is essential before anesthesia? → Coagulation profile
6. In the context of BCA certification, what is the most important consideration when implementing critical care & intensive care? → Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices
7. Which intervention would most reliably improve an unreliable pulse oximetry reading due to motion artifact? → Apply the probe to the ear lobe or forehead
8. When performing a transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block, the local anesthetic is deposited in which fascial plane? → Between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
9. The MOST common indication for insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) in the perioperative setting is: → Cardiogenic shock or failure to wean from cardiopulmonary bypass
10. Intraoperative awareness is most likely during general anesthesia for cesarean delivery because: → Volatile agents are reduced to avoid neonatal depression
11. Which induction agent is most appropriate for a patient with a known egg allergy who requires TIVA? → Ketamine
12. What is the purpose of bag-valve-mask ventilation? → Manual ventilation
13. During off-pump CABG (OPCAB), which stabilizer position for the circumflex territory most commonly causes hemodynamic compromise? → Lateral wall (Cx territory) with vertical displacement
14. Which benzodiazepine reversal agent is used to treat midazolam-induced respiratory depression? → Flumazenil
15. A patient develops severe hypotension after induction with propofol. Which mechanism best explains this effect? → Direct myocardial depression and vasodilation
16. Which ultrasound view is recommended for visualizing the adductor canal to perform an adductor canal block? → Short-axis view of the medial thigh at mid-femur level
17. Which ventilator parameter is most directly associated with ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI)? → Tidal volume (driving pressure)
18. Which anatomical feature of the infant larynx makes it more susceptible to obstruction compared to adults? → Funnel-shaped with narrowest point at the cricoid
19. Which nerve must be separately blocked to achieve complete anesthesia of the medial forearm when performing an axillary brachial plexus block? → Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm
20. A patient in the ICU develops oliguria, rising creatinine, and FENa <1%. Which condition is most consistent? → Prerenal azotemia
21. On a precordial stethoscope placed over the left precordium during anesthesia, which finding would raise immediate concern for air embolism? → Mill-wheel murmur
22. A patient develops sudden hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria 10 minutes after antibiotic administration. What is the first-line treatment? → IV epinephrine 0.1–0.5 mg
23. Large-volume infusion of which intravenous fluid is most likely to cause hyperchloremic non-anion gap metabolic acidosis? → 0.9% Normal Saline
24. In severe traumatic brain injury, which intervention is recommended to reduce secondary injury? → Maintain SBP ≥100 mmHg and avoid hypoxia (SpO2 <90%)
25. What is the role of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA)? → To secure airway during anesthesia
26. Which local anesthetic class (ester vs amide) is associated with allergic reactions due to the para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) metabolite? → Esters only
27. The formula for Maximum Allowable Blood Loss (MABL) before red blood cell transfusion is required is: → MABL = EBV × (Starting Hct − Minimum Acceptable Hct) / Starting Hct
28. Which coagulation test specifically reflects the function of the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor warfarin therapy? → Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
29. A patient with severe aortic stenosis (AVA 0.6 cm²) presents for urgent hip fracture repair. The SAFEST anesthetic approach is: → Peripheral nerve block with light sedation
30. During spinal cord surgery, which electrophysiological monitoring modality assesses dorsal column (sensory) pathway integrity? → Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)